Nursing Elites

1. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia nervosa
• D. Systemic sclerosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.

2. The clinic nurse is assessing jaundice in a child with hepatitis. Which anatomical area would provide the best data regarding the presence of jaundice?

• A. The nail beds.
• B. The skin in the sacral area.
• C. The skin in the abdominal area.
• D. The membranes in the ear canal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jaundice, if present, can be best assessed in areas such as the sclera, nail beds, and mucous membranes due to the yellowing of these tissues. The nail beds specifically provide a good indication of jaundice. The skin in the sacral area (Option B) is not typically the best area for assessing jaundice as it is less visible and not as reliable as the nail beds. The skin in the abdominal area (Option C) may show generalized jaundice, but the nail beds are more specific for detecting early signs. Lastly, assessing the membranes in the ear canal (Option D) is not a standard method for evaluating jaundice; the sclera and nail beds are more commonly used for this purpose.

3. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?

• A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
• B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
• C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
• D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.

4. A patient is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) of the chest with contrast media. Which assessment finding should the nurse immediately report to the health care provider?

• A. Patient is claustrophobic.
• B. Patient is allergic to shellfish.
• C. Patient recently used a bronchodilator inhaler.
• D. Patient is not able to remove a wedding band.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient is allergic to shellfish. This is crucial because the contrast media used in CT scans is iodine-based, and individuals with iodine allergies, such as those allergic to shellfish, are at risk of adverse reactions. It is important to identify and address this allergy to prevent potential complications. The other options do not directly impact the safety or effectiveness of the CT scan with contrast media. Claustrophobia can be managed with patient support, the recent use of a bronchodilator inhaler does not typically affect the CT procedure, and not being able to remove a wedding band is not a critical concern for the scan itself.

5. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse assesses the patient for mental status changes. What is the rationale for this intervention?

• A. Decreased cardiac output can cause hypoxia to the brain
• B. Mental status changes may be a side effect of the patient's medication
• C. Mitral regurgitation is a complication associated with some neurological disorders
• D. The patient may be confused about his diagnosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output, assessing for mental status changes is crucial. Decreased cardiac output can lead to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs, including the brain, resulting in hypoxia. This hypoxia can manifest as mental status changes such as confusion, restlessness, or lethargy. Therefore, monitoring mental status helps in identifying potential hypoxic states and guiding appropriate interventions. The other options are incorrect as they do not directly correlate decreased cardiac output with potential hypoxia-induced mental status changes.

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