Nursing Elites

1. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia nervosa
• D. Systemic sclerosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.

2. A 38-year-old patient with cirrhosis has ascites and 4+ edema of the feet and legs. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

• A. Restrict daily dietary protein intake.
• B. Reposition the patient every 4 hours.
• C. Place the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress.
• D. Perform passive range of motion daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress is crucial to decrease the risk of skin breakdown, especially with significant edema and ascites. Adequate dietary protein intake is essential in patients with ascites to improve oncotic pressure and prevent malnutrition. Repositioning the patient every 4 hours alone may not be sufficient to prevent skin breakdown, especially in areas prone to pressure ulcers. Performing passive range of motion exercises is important for maintaining joint mobility but does not directly address the risk of skin breakdown associated with prolonged pressure on vulnerable areas.

3. A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

• A. All striated muscles
• B. The cerebellum
• C. The kidneys
• D. The leg bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, originating in striated (skeletal) muscles and potentially affecting any part of the body. Symptoms vary based on the location of the tumor. In the head or neck area, symptoms may include sudden bulging or swelling of the eyes, conjunctival chemosis, and headache. Rhabdomyosarcoma can also impact organs like the urinary or reproductive system. Common metastatic sites include the lungs. Therefore, the nurse should pay attention to the function of all striated muscles in the child to monitor for any signs or symptoms related to the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as rhabdomyosarcoma primarily involves striated muscles and does not specifically target the cerebellum, kidneys, or leg bones.

4. A patient is being treated in the Neurology Unit for Meningitis. Which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make?

• A. Assess the patient for nuchal rigidity
• B. Determine the patient's past exposure to infectious organisms
• C. Check the patient's WBC lab values
• D. Monitor for increased lethargy and drowsiness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring for increased lethargy and drowsiness is crucial as these symptoms indicate a decreased level of consciousness, which is the cardinal sign of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). Elevated ICP can lead to serious complications and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for nuchal rigidity is important in suspected cases of meningitis but monitoring lethargy and drowsiness takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ICP. Determining past exposure to infectious organisms and checking WBC lab values are important for diagnosing and treating meningitis but do not directly address the immediate concern of increased ICP.

5. When is cleft palate repair usually performed in children?

• A. A cleft palate cannot be repaired in children.
• B. Repair is usually performed by age 8 weeks.
• C. Repair is usually performed by 2 months of age.
• D. Repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cleft palate repair timing is individualized based on the severity of the deformity and the child's size. Typically, cleft palate repair is performed between 6 months and 2 years of age. This age range allows for optimal outcomes and is often done before 12 months to promote normal speech development. Early closure of the cleft palate helps to facilitate speech development. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a cleft palate can be repaired in children, and repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years of age, not at 8 weeks or 2 months.

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