Nursing Elites

1. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia nervosa
• D. Systemic sclerosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.

2. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Calcium
• B. Bilirubin
• C. Amylase
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.

3. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old upon admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is

• A. Urinary output of 30 ml per hour
• B. No complaints of thirst
• C. Increased hematocrit
• D. Good skin turgor around burn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary output of 30 ml per hour. In a 10-year-old child, this level of urinary output is indicative of adequate fluid replacement without suggesting overload. Monitoring urinary output is crucial in assessing fluid balance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. No complaints of thirst do not provide a direct assessment of fluid status. Increased hematocrit is a sign of dehydration, not adequate fluid replacement. Good skin turgor around the burn is a general assessment but may not directly reflect the child's overall fluid status.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing the mental status of a client admitted with possible organic brain disorder. Which of these questions will best assess the function of the client's recent memory?

• A. Name the year. What season is this? (pause for answer after each question)
• B. Subtract 7 from 100 and then subtract 7 from that. (pause for answer) Now continue to subtract 7 from the new number.
• C. I am going to say the names of three things, and I want you to repeat them after me: blue, ball, pen.
• D. What is this on my wrist? (point to your watch) Then ask, What is the purpose of it?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to perform a calculation that involves working memory and processing skills. This question not only assesses the recent memory but also evaluates attention and executive functioning. The choice 'I am going to say the names of three things, and I want you to repeat them after me: blue, ball, pen' assesses immediate recall rather than recent memory. Asking about the current year or season tests orientation rather than recent memory. Inquiring about the watch and its purpose assesses comprehension and judgment rather than recent memory.

5. Which of the following is the most common type of malignant brain tumor in the United States?

• A. Meningioma
• B. Glioblastoma multiforme
• C. Acoustic neuroma
• D. Pituitary adenoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common malignant brain tumor in the United States, accounting for a significant portion of cases. It is known for its aggressive nature and poor prognosis. Surgical resection, followed by radiation and chemotherapy, is the standard treatment approach for glioblastoma multiforme. Meningioma, acoustic neuroma, and pituitary adenoma are also types of brain tumors but are not as common as glioblastoma multiforme in the United States.

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