NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of these individuals would the nurse suspect as having the greatest risk of contracting Hepatitis B?
- A. A sexually active 45-year-old man who has Type 1 Diabetes
- B. A 75-year-old woman who lives in a crowded nursing home
- C. A child who lives in a country with poor sanitation and hygiene standards
- D. A sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital. This individual is at the highest risk of contracting Hepatitis B due to exposure in a healthcare setting where potential bloodborne pathogens are present. Being sexually active also increases the risk of transmission through sexual contact. Choice A, a 45-year-old man with Type 1 Diabetes, is not directly associated with an increased risk of Hepatitis B. Choice B, a 75-year-old woman living in a crowded nursing home, is at risk for other infections due to the living environment but not specifically for Hepatitis B. Choice C, a child in a country with poor sanitation, is more at risk for water or foodborne illnesses rather than Hepatitis B transmission.
2. A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain of 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) whenever taking a deep breath. Which action will the nurse take next?
- A. Auscultate breath sounds.
- B. Administer PRN morphine.
- C. Have the patient cough forcefully.
- D. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient's complaint of sharp pain when taking a deep breath is concerning for pleurisy or pleural effusion. The nurse should auscultate breath sounds to assess for a pleural friction rub or decreased breath sounds, which could indicate these conditions. It is crucial to gather assessment data before initiating any pain medications. Asking the patient to cough forcefully may exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until further assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be based on the assessment findings; therefore, it is premature to notify the provider without conducting a thorough assessment first.
3. The home health nurse visits a male client to provide wound care and finds the client lethargic and confused. His wife states he fell down the stairs two (2) hours ago. The nurse should
- A. Place a call to the client's healthcare provider for instructions
- B. Send him to the emergency room for evaluation
- C. Reassure the client's wife that the symptoms are transient
- D. Instruct the client's wife to call the doctor if his symptoms become worse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with concerning symptoms of lethargy and confusion after a fall. These symptoms could indicate a serious underlying issue, such as a head injury or internal bleeding. The nurse's priority is to ensure the client receives immediate evaluation and treatment to prevent any further harm. Option B is the correct choice as it emphasizes the urgency of the situation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the critical nature of the client's condition. Contacting the healthcare provider, reassuring the wife, or waiting for symptoms to worsen could delay necessary medical intervention.
4. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?
- A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
- B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
- C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
- D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.
5. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?
- A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
- B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
- C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
- D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.
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