a 28 year old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern the male is sweaty and pale which of the following tests is most likely to b

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A. Blood sugar check
B. CT scan
C. Blood cultures
D. Arterial blood gases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.

2. The nurse is caring for clients in the pediatric unit. A 6-year-old patient is admitted with 2nd and 3rd degree burns on his arms. The nurse should assign the new patient to which of the following roommates?

A. A 4-year-old with sickle-cell disease
B. A 12-year-old with chickenpox
C. A 6-year-old undergoing chemotherapy
D. A 7-year-old with a high temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should be concerned about the burn patient's vulnerability to infection due to compromised skin integrity. Sickle cell disease is not a communicable disease, so rooming the burn patient with a 4-year-old with sickle-cell disease would not pose an increased risk of infection transmission. Rooming the burn patient with a 12-year-old with chickenpox would increase the risk of infection for the burn patient. Rooming with a 6-year-old undergoing chemotherapy may expose the burn patient to potential infections. A 7-year-old with a high temperature could potentially have a contagious illness, which could be risky for the burn patient.

3. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

A. 8
B. 10
C. 14
D. 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

4. Rhogam is most often used to treat mothers that have a infant.

A. RH positive, RH positive
B. RH positive, RH negative
C. RH negative, RH positive
D. RH negative, RH negative

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rhogam is administered to RH-negative mothers who have an RH-positive infant to prevent the development of anti-RH antibodies in the mother's system. Choice A (RH positive, RH positive) is incorrect because Rhogam is not used when both mother and infant are RH positive. Choice B (RH positive, RH negative) is incorrect because Rhogam is used when the mother is RH negative, not RH positive. Choice D (RH negative, RH negative) is incorrect as Rhogam is not typically needed if both mother and infant are RH negative.

5. A couple asks the nurse about risks of several birth control methods. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

A. Norplant is safe and can be easily removed.
B. Oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers.
C. Depo-Provera is convenient with few side effects.
D. The IUD provides protection against pregnancy and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers. The use of oral contraceptives in a woman who smokes increases the risk of cardiovascular problems, such as thromboembolic disorders. This is due to the combined effect of smoking and hormonal contraceptives. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific risk associated with smoking and oral contraceptives. Norplant's safety and ease of removal, Depo-Provera's convenience with few side effects, and the IUD's protection against pregnancy and infection are important points but not directly related to the increased risks for smokers using oral contraceptives.