Nursing Elites

1. A patient with Meningitis is being treated with Vancomycin intravenously 3 times per day. The nurse notes that the urine output during the last 8 hours was 200mL. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Check the patient's last BUN levels
• B. Ask the patient to increase their fluid intake
• C. Ask the physician to order a diuretic
• D. Notify the physician of this finding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vancomycin is a nephrotoxic drug and can cause impaired renal perfusion, which would lead to decreased urine output. This is a serious adverse effect that should be promptly reported to the physician. Checking the patient's last BUN levels (Choice A) may provide additional information but does not address the urgency of the situation. Asking the patient to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the cause is related to Vancomycin toxicity. Ordering a diuretic (Choice C) without physician evaluation can exacerbate the issue, making notifying the physician (Choice D) the most critical action to take.

2. An 18-month-old child is being discharged after surgical repair of hypospadias. Which postoperative nursing care measure should the nurse stress to the parents as they prepare to take their child home?

• A. Leave the diapers on to protect the surgical site.
• B. Avoid tub baths until the stent has been removed.
• C. Delay toilet training until the child has fully recovered.
• D. Encourage adequate fluid intake to maintain hydration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After surgical repair of hypospadias, the nurse should stress to the parents to avoid giving the child a tub bath until the stent has been removed. This precaution helps prevent infection and ensures proper healing of the surgical site. Leaving diapers on is important to protect the surgical site from contamination. Delaying toilet training is recommended to reduce stress on the child during the recovery period. Encouraging adequate fluid intake is crucial to maintain hydration and support the healing process.

3. Which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine?

• A. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program
• B. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery
• C. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia
• D. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a 75-year-old woman in a hospice program. Sublingual morphine is commonly used in hospice care because patients may have difficulty swallowing, and intravenous access can be uncomfortable and not ideal for palliative care. Choice B, a 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery, is less likely to receive sublingual morphine as he may be able to swallow, and other pain management options may be more suitable. Choice C, a 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia, would typically require specific medications targeting neuropathic pain rather than sublingual morphine. Choice D, a 60-year-old man with a painful incision, may benefit from localized pain relief or other systemic pain management options, but sublingual morphine is not usually the first choice for this type of pain.

4. Which patient is at risk for developing oral candidiasis, a type of stomatitis?

• A. A 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic
• B. A 35-year-old man who has had HIV for 6 years
• C. A 40-year-old man who is undergoing chemotherapy
• D. An 80-year-old woman with dentures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic. This patient has multiple risk factors for developing oral candidiasis, including older age, being in a long-term care facility, and taking antibiotics. Candidiasis can be caused by long-term antibiotic therapy, immunosuppressive therapy (such as chemotherapy), older age, living in a long-term care facility, diabetes, having dentures, and poor oral hygiene. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be at high risk for oral candidiasis compared to the correct answer.

5. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?

• A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
• B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
• C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
• D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.

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