Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assesses a patient suspected of having meningitis. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
• B. A high WBC count and manic activity
• C. A low WBC count and manic activity
• D. A low WBC count and decreased level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness.' Meningitis is often caused by an infectious organism, leading to an increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP), which can result in decreased level of consciousness. While meningitis can trigger an inflammatory response, it typically presents with an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count rather than a low WBC count. Manic activity is not a common clinical manifestation of meningitis; instead, patients may exhibit altered mental status, confusion, or lethargy.

2. The health care provider writes an order for bacteriologic testing for a patient who has a positive tuberculosis skin test. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Teach about the reason for the blood tests.
• B. Schedule an appointment for a chest x-ray.
• C. Teach about the need to get sputum specimens for 2 to 3 consecutive days.
• D. Instruct the patient to expectorate three specimens as soon as possible.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to teach the patient about the need to collect sputum specimens for 2 to 3 consecutive days for bacteriologic testing for M. tuberculosis. It is important to obtain these specimens on different days rather than all at once. Blood tests are not used for tuberculosis testing, so teaching about blood tests is not relevant. While a chest x-ray is important in tuberculosis diagnosis, it is not a bacteriologic test. The appearance on a chest x-ray alone is not sufficient to diagnose TB as other diseases can have similar findings.

3. A nurse is educating a patient about bimatoprost (Lumigan) eyedrops for the treatment of Glaucoma. Which of the following indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of the expected outcomes following treatment?

• A. "I should be experiencing less blurriness in my central field of vision"
• B. "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse."
• C. "My peripheral vision should be increasing back to its normal state, but will take a few weeks to do so."
• D. "This medication will help my eye restor intraocular fluid and increase intraocular pressure"

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glaucoma cannot be cured, just treated. Treatment revolves around preventing further deterioration.

4. A two-year-old child has sustained an injury to the leg and refuses to walk. The nurse in the emergency department documents swelling of the lower affected leg. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the cause of the child's symptoms?

• A. Possible fracture of the tibia.
• B. Bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle.
• C. Possible fracture of the radius.
• D. No anatomic injury, the child wants his mother to carry him.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child's refusal to walk, along with swelling of the lower leg, indicates a possible fracture, specifically of the tibia. Fractures can cause pain and swelling, leading to difficulty or refusal to bear weight on the affected limb. Choice B, bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle, would not typically result in the child refusing to walk. Choice C, a possible fracture of the radius, is less likely given the location of the swelling and the associated refusal to walk. Choice D, stating no anatomic injury and attributing the child's behavior to wanting to be carried by the mother, is incorrect as the physical findings suggest a potential fracture that needs to be evaluated further.

5. A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?

• A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
• B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
• C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
• D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, the initial assessment should focus on gathering specific information relevant to the current episode of respiratory distress. A comprehensive health history or full physical examination can be deferred until the acute distress has been addressed. Asking specific questions helps determine the cause of the distress and guides appropriate treatment. While checking for allergies is important, completing the entire admission database is not a priority during the initial assessment. Likewise, delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not recommended as the immediate focus should be on addressing the acute respiratory distress before ordering further diagnostic tests or interventions.

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