Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to care for an infant who has esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. Surgery is scheduled to be performed in 1 hour. Intravenous fluids have been initiated, and a nasogastric (NG) tube has been inserted by the primary healthcare provider. The nurse plans care, knowing that which intervention is of highest priority during this preoperative period?

• A. Monitor the temperature.
• B. Monitor the blood pressure.
• C. Reposition the infant frequently.
• D. Aspirate the NG tube every 5 to 10 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is a critical neonatal surgical emergency. The highest priority intervention during the preoperative period is to aspirate the NG tube every 5 to 10 minutes to keep the proximal pouch clear of secretions and prevent aspiration. This is crucial in reducing the risk of gastric secretions entering the lungs. Repositioning the infant frequently is not as critical as ensuring the NG tube is aspirated. Monitoring the temperature and blood pressure are important nursing interventions but are not the highest priority in this situation. It is essential to prioritize airway protection and prevent aspiration in this neonate undergoing urgent surgical intervention.

2. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

• A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
• B. Edema of the ankles
• C. Gastric irritability
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

3. A patient has been taking mood stabilizing medication but is afraid of needles. They ask the nurse what medication would NOT require regular lab testing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Valproic Acid (Depakote)
• B. Clozapine (Clozaril)
• C. Lithium
• D. Risperidone (Risperdal)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Risperidone (Risperdal) because it is the only medication among the options that does not require regular lab testing. Risperidone is not associated with the need for routine blood draws to monitor medication levels or potential side effects. Choices A, B, and C (Valproic Acid, Clozapine, Lithium) are all known to require frequent lab monitoring due to various reasons such as potential toxicity, therapeutic drug levels, or adverse effects on certain organ functions. Therefore, considering the patient's fear of needles and the desire to avoid frequent blood tests, Risperidone would be the most suitable option.

4. The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. After being told the patient has been smoking cigarettes for 30 years, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?

• A. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
• B. A widened chest cavity
• C. Clubbed fingers
• D. An increased risk of cardiac failure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: 1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC): Forced Vital Capacity is the volume of air exhaled from full inhalation to full exhalation. A patient with COPD would have a decrease in FVC. Therefore, this choice is incorrect. 2. A widened chest cavity: A patient with COPD often presents with a 'barrel chest,' which is seen as a widened chest cavity. Hence, a narrowed chest cavity is not an expected finding. 3. Clubbed fingers - CORRECT: Clubbed fingers are a sign of a long-term, or chronic, decrease in oxygen levels, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic respiratory conditions like Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. 4. An increased risk of cardiac failure: Although a patient with these conditions would indeed be at an increased risk for cardiac failure, this is a potential complication and not an assessment finding, making it an incorrect choice.

5. A patient asks the nurse why they must have a heparin injection. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Heparin will dissolve clots that you have.
• B. Heparin will reduce the platelets that make your blood clot.
• C. Heparin will work better than warfarin.
• D. Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.' Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots. It does not dissolve existing clots (choice A), reduce platelets (choice B), or necessarily work 'better' than warfarin (choice C) but rather functions differently. The primary action of heparin is to prevent the development of new clots, especially in conditions where clot formation is a concern.

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