NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Calcium
- B. Bilirubin
- C. Amylase
- D. Potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.
2. Diabetic patients are more prone to ____________ than other people without this chronic disorder.
- A. infection
- B. increased oxygen saturation
- C. low fibrinogen
- D. constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diabetic patients are more prone to infection than other people without this chronic disorder. Diabetes weakens the immune system and impairs the body's ability to fight off infections, making individuals with diabetes more susceptible to various types of infections. Increased oxygen saturation, low fibrinogen, and constipation are not directly related to diabetes or the increased infection risk associated with the condition. Increased oxygen saturation is actually a positive health indicator, low fibrinogen levels are not a common issue in diabetes, and constipation is not a primary concern when comparing diabetic patients to others without the condition.
3. While auscultating a patient's lungs, the nurse hears low-pitched, bubbling sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs. How should the nurse document this finding?
- A. Inspiratory crackles at the bases
- B. Expiratory wheezes in both lungs
- C. Abnormal lung sounds in the apices of both lungs
- D. Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Inspiratory crackles at the bases.' Crackles are low-pitched, bubbling sounds typically heard during inspiration, which aligns with the nurse's finding. Expiratory wheezes are high-pitched sounds and are not consistent with the described auscultation findings. The lower third of both lungs refers to the bases, not the apices, so option C is incorrect. Pleural friction rubs are grating sounds heard during both inspiration and expiration, unlike the described finding of only hearing the sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs.
4. A 55-year-old patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies, but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Is there any history of IV drug use?
- B. Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?
- C. Are you taking corticosteroids for any reason?
- D. Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask in this scenario is whether the patient uses any over-the-counter drugs. The patient's symptoms, negative serologic testing for viral hepatitis, and sudden onset of symptoms point towards toxic hepatitis, which can be triggered by commonly used over-the-counter medications like acetaminophen (Tylenol). Asking about IV drug use is relevant for viral hepatitis, not toxic hepatitis. Inquiring about recent travel to a foreign country is more pertinent to potential exposure to infectious agents causing viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use is not typically associated with the symptoms described in the case.
5. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is
- A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery.
- B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator.
- C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow.
- D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that involves compressing plaque against the wall of a diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is a minimally invasive procedure performed during a cardiac catheterization to open blockages in the coronary arteries. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery refers to procedures like coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), not PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator is a different intervention used for managing cardiac arrhythmias, not for improving coronary blood flow. A non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart would typically refer to procedures like a cardiac CT scan or an MRI, not PTCA.
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