Nursing Elites

1. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Calcium
• B. Bilirubin
• C. Amylase
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.

2. The healthcare provider is managing a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour.
• B. Periodic crying and irritability.
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier.
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical finding that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding raises concerns about possible hyperkalemia, which can result from continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. The management of acute hyperkalemia involves interventions such as administering calcium to protect the heart, shifting potassium into cells, and enhancing potassium elimination from the body. The other choices do not indicate an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. Three episodes of vomiting in 1 hour can be concerning but may not be as immediately critical as the risk of hyperkalemia. Periodic crying and irritability are common in infants and may not indicate a severe complication. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier is a normal behavior in infants and does not signal a medical emergency.

3. A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient?

• A. The patient is allergic to shellfish.
• B. The patient has a pacemaker.
• C. The patient suffers from claustrophobia.
• D. The patient takes antipsychotic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has a pacemaker. A pacemaker is a contraindication to MRI scanning due to the interference with the magnetic fields of the MRI scanner. This interference can potentially deactivate the pacemaker, putting the patient at risk. Patients with cardiac implantable electronic devices (CIED) are at risk for inappropriate device therapy, device heating/movement, and arrhythmia during MRI. This necessitates special precautions such as scheduling in a CIED blocked slot or having electrophysiology nurse or technician support. It is important to ensure that the patient's pacemaker is MRI conditional before proceeding with the scan. The other choices, such as being allergic to shellfish, suffering from claustrophobia, or taking antipsychotic medication, are not direct contraindications to undergoing an MRI scan for suspected lung cancer.

4. A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?

• A. Trichomoniasis
• B. Chlamydia
• C. Staphylococcus
• D. Streptococcus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chlamydial infections are one of the most common causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Chlamydia can ascend from the vagina or cervix to the reproductive organs, leading to inflammation and infection. Trichomoniasis, caused by a parasite, typically presents with different symptoms than pelvic inflammatory disease and is not the primary cause. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are bacteria that can cause other types of infections but are not the primary culprits in most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.

5. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?

• A. The tumor is less than 3 cm in size and requires no chemotherapy.
• B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
• C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
• D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Wilms tumor staging, stage II indicates that the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. This means that the tumor has spread beyond the kidney but has been successfully removed. Choices A and B are incorrect because a tumor less than 3 cm in size and a tumor that did not extend beyond the kidney do not align with the characteristics of stage II Wilms tumor. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a more advanced stage where the tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be completely resected. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects the characteristics of a stage II Wilms tumor.

Similar Questions