Nursing Elites

1. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Calcium
• B. Bilirubin
• C. Amylase
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.

2. A fragile 87-year-old female has recently been admitted to the hospital with increased confusion and falls over the last two weeks. She is also noted to have a mild left hemiparesis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

• A. CBC (Complete Blood Count)
• B. ECG (Electrocardiogram)
• C. Thyroid Function Tests
• D. CT Scan

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A CT scan is most likely to be performed in this scenario. A CT scan would be done to further investigate the cause of the left hemiparesis. Noncontrast CT scanning is commonly used in the acute evaluation of patients with suspected acute stroke to assess for ischemic changes or hemorrhage in the brain. While a CBC may provide information on blood cell counts and general health status, it is not the primary test for evaluating hemiparesis. An ECG is used to assess heart function and rhythm, which is not the main concern in this case. Thyroid function tests evaluate thyroid hormone levels and are not typically the initial tests for evaluating hemiparesis and confusion.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recently had a successful catheter ablation. Which assessment finding demonstrates a successful outcome of this procedure?

• A. The patient is free of electrolyte imbalances
• B. The patient's WBC count is within normal limits
• C. The patient's EKG reading is regular
• D. The patient's urine output is 45 mL/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A successful outcome of a catheter ablation procedure for arrhythmias, particularly SVT, is indicated by a regular EKG reading. Catheter ablation involves the use of radiofrequency energy to destroy the conduction fiber in the heart responsible for the arrhythmia. This destruction helps in preventing further episodes of arrhythmia. While choices A, B, and D are important assessments in patient care, they are not specific indicators of the success of a catheter ablation procedure. Electrolyte imbalances, WBC count, and urine output can be affected by various factors and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a catheter ablation in treating arrhythmias.

4. A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?

• A. Gastric lavage
• B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally
• C. Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep the vein open
• D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.

5. One hour after a thoracotomy, a patient complains of incisional pain at a level 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 mL of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action is best for the nurse to take next?

• A. Milk the chest tube gently to remove any clots.
• B. Clamp the chest tube momentarily to check for the origin of the air leak.
• C. Assist the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer.
• D. Set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine.

Correct answer: S

Rationale: In this scenario, the best action is to set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine. The patient's pain level is high, which can hinder deep breathing and coughing. Addressing pain control is a priority to facilitate optimal respiratory function. Milking the chest tube to remove clots is unnecessary as the drainage amount is not alarming in the early postoperative period. Clamping the chest tube to locate the air leak is not recommended as it can lead to tension pneumothorax. Assisting the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer is important but should follow adequate pain management to ensure the patient can effectively participate in these activities.

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