Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is writing out discharge instructions for the parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease. The nurse should focus primarily on which aspect of care?

• A. Restricting activity
• B. Following a gluten-free diet
• C. Following a lactose-free diet
• D. Giving medication to manage the condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary nursing consideration in the care of a child with celiac disease is to instruct the child and parents about proper dietary management. The cornerstone of managing celiac disease is maintaining a strict gluten-free diet to prevent symptoms and long-term complications. While medications may be part of the treatment plan, dietary adjustments, particularly following a gluten-free diet, are crucial for managing the condition effectively. Restricting activity is not the primary focus of care for celiac disease. A lactose-free diet is not typically necessary unless the child also has lactose intolerance, which is distinct from celiac disease.

2. The nurse is preparing to care for an infant who has esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. Surgery is scheduled to be performed in 1 hour. Intravenous fluids have been initiated, and a nasogastric (NG) tube has been inserted by the primary healthcare provider. The nurse plans care, knowing that which intervention is of highest priority during this preoperative period?

• A. Monitor the temperature.
• B. Monitor the blood pressure.
• C. Reposition the infant frequently.
• D. Aspirate the NG tube every 5 to 10 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is a critical neonatal surgical emergency. The highest priority intervention during the preoperative period is to aspirate the NG tube every 5 to 10 minutes to keep the proximal pouch clear of secretions and prevent aspiration. This is crucial in reducing the risk of gastric secretions entering the lungs. Repositioning the infant frequently is not as critical as ensuring the NG tube is aspirated. Monitoring the temperature and blood pressure are important nursing interventions but are not the highest priority in this situation. It is essential to prioritize airway protection and prevent aspiration in this neonate undergoing urgent surgical intervention.

3. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?

• A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
• B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
• C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
• D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.

4. The healthcare professional calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving an antibiotic. The patient is to receive 100mL of the antibiotic over 30 minutes. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 10 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare professional set the IV to deliver?

• A. 11
• B. 19
• C. 26
• D. 33

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the IV flow rate, you can use the formula: Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters to be infused x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. Substituting the given values, you get 100 mL x 10 drops/mL / 30 minutes = 33 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 33, as the healthcare professional should set the IV to deliver 33 drops per minute to infuse the antibiotic correctly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drops per minute based on the provided values.

5. The nurse is caring for a client in the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.). Which finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Confusion
• B. Loss of half of the visual field
• C. Shallow respirations
• D. Tonic-clonic seizures

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.), respiratory muscles are affected, leading to shallow respirations. Confusion is not typically associated with A.L.S. Loss of half of the visual field suggests a neurological issue unrelated to A.L.S., while tonic-clonic seizures are not commonly seen in A.L.S. patients. Shallow respirations are a hallmark sign of respiratory muscle weakness in A.L.S. due to the degeneration of motor neurons.

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