Nursing Elites

1. Which interventions should the nurse include when creating a care plan for a child with hepatitis? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Providing a low-fat, well-balanced diet.
• B. Teaching the child effective hand-washing techniques.
• C. Notifying the primary health care provider (PHCP) if jaundice is present.
• D. Instructing the parents to avoid administering medications unless prescribed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is instructing the parents to avoid administering medications unless prescribed. This choice is not directly related to the care of a child with hepatitis. It is essential for the nurse to educate the child and family about providing a low-fat, well-balanced diet to support the liver, teaching effective hand-washing techniques to prevent the spread of infection, and notifying the primary health care provider if jaundice is present to monitor the progression of the disease and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Avoiding unnecessary medications is crucial, but it should be done under healthcare provider guidance, so the statement should be revised to reflect this aspect. Therefore, the other options are appropriate for the care of a child with hepatitis.

2. A client is undergoing radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer. Following the radiation, the client develops xerostomia. Which of the following best describes this condition?

• A. Cracks in the corners of the mouth
• B. Peeling skin from the tongue and gums
• C. Increased dental caries
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Xerostomia, also known as dry mouth, is a common side effect of radiation therapy in the head and neck region. It occurs when the salivary glands are damaged during treatment, reducing saliva production and causing a dry sensation in the mouth. The correct answer is 'Dry mouth' (option D). Choice A, 'Cracks in the corners of the mouth,' describes angular cheilitis, a condition linked to nutritional deficiencies or candida infection. Choice B, 'Peeling skin from the tongue and gums,' is more indicative of conditions like oral thrush or mucositis. Choice C, 'Increased dental caries,' is a consequence of reduced saliva flow but does not specifically describe xerostomia.

3. A client is being instructed in the use of an incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements from the nurse indicates correct teaching about using this device?

• A. Lie back in a reclining position while using the spirometer.
• B. Take slow deep breaths to reach your goal.
• C. Set a goal of using the spirometer at least 3 times per day.
• D. Practice coughing after taking 10 breaths.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An incentive spirometer is a device used to improve lung function and reduce the risk of atelectasis. The correct way to use the spirometer is by sitting up and taking slow, deep breaths to achieve the set goal, not by lying back in a reclining position or taking rapid, quick breaths. Setting a goal of using the spirometer multiple times a day is beneficial, but it is not the best indicator of correct teaching. After using the spirometer, the client should practice coughing to help clear any loosened secretions that may have occurred during the breathing exercises.

4. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?

• A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
• B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
• C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
• D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.

5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?

• A. Oculogyric crisis
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.

Similar Questions