Nursing Elites

1. A patient asks the nurse why they must have a heparin injection. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Heparin will dissolve clots that you have.
• B. Heparin will reduce the platelets that make your blood clot.
• C. Heparin will work better than warfarin.
• D. Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.' Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots. It does not dissolve existing clots (choice A), reduce platelets (choice B), or necessarily work 'better' than warfarin (choice C) but rather functions differently. The primary action of heparin is to prevent the development of new clots, especially in conditions where clot formation is a concern.

2. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination.
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.

3. A healthcare provider calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the healthcare provider most likely observed?

• A. The patient is somnolent with decreased response to stimuli.
• B. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.
• C. The patient has developed a wet cough and the healthcare provider hears crackles on auscultation of the lungs.
• D. The patient has a fever, chills, and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.' Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. The physician should be notified immediately. Clinical signs and symptoms for pulmonary embolism are nonspecific; therefore, patients suspected of having pulmonary embolism"?because of unexplained dyspnea, tachypnea, or chest pain or the presence of risk factors for pulmonary embolism"?must undergo diagnostic tests until the diagnosis is ascertained or eliminated or an alternative diagnosis is confirmed. Choices A, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with a pulmonary embolism, making them incorrect.

4. A patient is admitted to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and is diagnosed with a possible pulmonary embolus. How should the nurse prepare the patient for diagnostic testing to confirm the diagnosis?

• A. Start an IV so contrast media may be given
• B. Ensure that the patient has been NPO for at least 6 hours.
• C. Inform radiology that a radioactive glucose preparation is needed
• D. Instruct the patient to undress to the waist and remove any metal objects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For diagnosing pulmonary emboli, spiral computed tomography (CT) scans are commonly used, and contrast media may be given intravenously (IV) during the scan to enhance visualization of blood vessels. Chest x-rays are not typically diagnostic for pulmonary embolism. When preparing for a chest x-ray, the patient needs to undress and remove any metal objects. Bronchoscopy is used for examining the bronchial tree, not for assessing vascular changes, and the patient should be NPO 6 to 12 hours before the procedure. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans are primarily used to detect malignancies, and a radioactive glucose preparation is utilized for this purpose.

5. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?

• A. 60 microdrops/minute
• B. 20 microdrops/minute
• C. 30 microdrops/minute
• D. 40 microdrops/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

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