Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
• B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
• C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
• D. Nephrotic syndrome.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.

2. The nurse recognizes that teaching a 44-year-old woman following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy has been effective when the patient states which of the following?

• A. I can expect yellow-green drainage from the incision for a few days.
• B. I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower.
• C. I should plan to limit my activities and not return to work for 4 to 6 weeks.
• D. I will always need to maintain a low-fat diet since I no longer have a gallbladder.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower.' After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, patients have Band-Aids over the incisions and can typically remove the bandages the next day. Patients are usually discharged the same or next day and have minimal restrictions on their daily activities. Yellow-green drainage from the incision would be abnormal, requiring the patient to contact their healthcare provider. While a low-fat diet may be recommended initially after surgery, it is not a lifelong requirement, as the body can adjust to the absence of the gallbladder over time. Choice A is incorrect as abnormal drainage should be reported. Choice C is incorrect as most patients can resume normal activities within a few days to a week. Choice D is incorrect as maintaining a low-fat diet is not a lifelong necessity after a cholecystectomy.

3. A mother brings her 5-week-old infant to the health care clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been vomiting after meals. The mother reports that the vomiting is becoming more frequent and forceful. The nurse suspects pyloric stenosis and asks the mother which assessment question to elicit data specific to this condition?

• A. Are the stools ribbon-like, and is the infant eating poorly?
• B. Does the infant suddenly become pale, begin to cry, and draw the legs up to the chest?
• C. Does the vomit contain sour, undigested food without bile, and is the infant constipated?
• D. Does the infant cry loudly and continuously during the evening hours but nurses or takes formula well?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vomiting undigested food that is not bile stained and constipation are classic symptoms of pyloric stenosis. Stools that are ribbon-like and a child who is eating poorly are signs of congenital megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease). An infant who suddenly becomes pale, cries out, and draws the legs up to the chest is demonstrating physical signs of intussusception. Crying during the evening hours, appearing to be in pain, eating well, and gaining weight are clinical manifestations of colic.

4. A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a healthcare provider's order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented?

• A. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates.
• B. TB medications have been taken for 6 months.
• C. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm.
• D. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. This finding is crucial for discontinuing airborne precautions. Choice A is incorrect because chest x-rays do not determine the presence of active TB for transmission precautions. Choice B is not directly related to the infectiousness of TB; completing a 6-month course of medication is important for treatment but does not confirm the absence of active disease or infectiousness. Choice C is not relevant to assessing infectiousness; Mantoux testing measures exposure to TB but does not confirm the absence of active infection or infectiousness.

5. What nursing action demonstrates the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for patients being treated with splints, casts, or traction?

• A. The nurse assesses extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour.
• B. The nurse orders meals with adequate protein and calcium for the patient.
• C. The nurse teaches the patient never to insert objects under a cast to scratch an itch.
• D. The nurse administers oral painkillers as ordered.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour. This action aligns with the priority nursing diagnosis of Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction related to fractures. Monitoring these factors is crucial to detect any signs of compromised circulation or nerve function promptly. Option B is incorrect as it does not directly address the priority nursing diagnosis. Option C is important but does not directly relate to the neurovascular aspect. Option D, administering painkillers, is necessary but does not specifically address the priority nursing diagnosis of neurovascular dysfunction.

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