NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A nurse is educating a patient about bimatoprost (Lumigan) eyedrops for the treatment of Glaucoma. Which of the following indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of the expected outcomes following treatment?
- A. "I should be experiencing less blurriness in my central field of vision"
- B. "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse."
- C. "My peripheral vision should be increasing back to its normal state, but will take a few weeks to do so."
- D. "This medication will help my eye restor intraocular fluid and increase intraocular pressure"
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Glaucoma cannot be cured, just treated. Treatment revolves around preventing further deterioration.
2. When caring for a patient with Parkinson's Disease, which of the following practices would not be included in the care plan?
- A. Decrease the calorie content of daily meals to avoid weight gain
- B. Allow the patient extra time to respond to questions and perform ADLs
- C. Use thickened liquids and a soft diet
- D. Encourage the patient to hold the spoon when eating
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the calorie content of daily meals to avoid weight gain. Patients with Parkinson's Disease often experience dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) and muscle rigidity, which can lead to weight loss. Therefore, increasing calorie intake is essential to meet their nutritional needs. Choice A is incorrect because reducing calories can worsen malnutrition in these patients. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for patients with Parkinson's Disease. Allowing extra time for tasks, using thickened liquids and a soft diet for swallowing difficulties, and encouraging self-feeding promote independence and safety in eating.
3. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is
- A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery.
- B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator.
- C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow.
- D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that involves compressing plaque against the wall of a diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is a minimally invasive procedure performed during a cardiac catheterization to open blockages in the coronary arteries. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery refers to procedures like coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), not PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator is a different intervention used for managing cardiac arrhythmias, not for improving coronary blood flow. A non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart would typically refer to procedures like a cardiac CT scan or an MRI, not PTCA.
4. Which finding would necessitate an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Weight loss of 2 lb (1 kg)
- B. Positive urine pregnancy test
- C. Hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dL
- D. Complaints of nausea and anorexia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive urine pregnancy test would require an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy due to the teratogenic effects of ribavirin. Ribavirin needs to be discontinued immediately to prevent harm to the fetus. The other options, weight loss, hemoglobin level, and complaints of nausea and anorexia, are common adverse effects of the prescribed regimen and may necessitate interventions such as patient education or supportive care, but they would not mandate an immediate cessation of therapy as in the case of a positive pregnancy test.
5. Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices?
- A. The medication will reduce the risk of aspiration.
- B. The medication will inhibit the development of gastric ulcers.
- C. The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.
- D. The medication will decrease nausea and improve appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is: 'The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.' Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acidic gastric contents. While ranitidine can decrease the risk of peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, the primary purpose of H2-receptor blockade in this patient is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices, not the other listed effects.
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