Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?

• A. Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm
• B. Ask the patient for a stool sample
• C. Prepare to insert an NG Tube
• D. Administer intramuscular morphine sulfate as ordered

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.

2. When developing a plan of care for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis, which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Encourage limited activity and provide safety measures.
• B. Catheterize the child to monitor intake and output strictly.
• C. Encourage the child to talk about feelings related to illness.
• D. Encourage classmates to visit and keep the child informed of school events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis should be to encourage limited activity and provide safety measures. In glomerulonephritis, children tend to restrict their activities voluntarily due to fatigue during the active phase of the disease. Catheterization for intake and output monitoring may predispose the child to infection and is not the primary intervention. Encouraging the child to talk about feelings related to the illness may not be developmentally appropriate for a 6-year-old; instead, children can express feelings through play. It is important to limit visitors to allow the child to rest and recover rather than encouraging classmates to visit and keep the child informed of school events.

3. A 49-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is to begin treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching?

• A. Recommendation to drink at least 4 L of fluid daily
• B. Need to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery
• C. How to draw up and administer injections of the medication
• D. Use of contraceptive methods other than oral contraceptives

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When initiating treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone), patient education should focus on teaching the patient how to draw up and administer injections of the medication. Copaxone is administered via self-injection, hence understanding the correct technique is crucial for successful treatment. Recommendations regarding fluid intake or the need to avoid driving heavy machinery are not directly related to glatiramer acetate therapy. Additionally, while discussing contraceptive methods may be important, the use of oral contraceptives does not specifically contraindicate the use of glatiramer acetate.

4. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?

• A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
• B. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• C. Lactated Ringer's
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.

5. A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with intussusception, and the mother of the child asks the student nurse to describe the disorder. Which statement by the student nurse indicates correct understanding of this disorder?

• A. It is an acute bowel obstruction.
• B. It is a condition that causes an acute inflammatory process in the bowel.
• C. It is a condition in which a distal segment of the bowel prolapses into a proximal segment of the bowel.
• D. It is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel telescopes or prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel. This leads to bowel obstruction and potential ischemia. It is not an acute bowel obstruction, as the obstruction is caused by the telescoping of bowel segments rather than a blockage in the bowel lumen. Intussusception is not primarily an inflammatory process; instead, it is a mechanical issue involving bowel invagination. Choice A is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the pathophysiology of intussusception. Choice C is incorrect because it presents the opposite scenario of what happens in intussusception.

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