NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?
- A. Provide smaller, more frequent feedings.
- B. Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
- C. Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula.
- D. Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.
2. When assessing a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease with classic symptoms, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Tremors
- B. Low Urine Output
- C. Exaggerated arm movements
- D. Risk for Falls
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease, the nurse should expect to note tremors as one of the cardinal signs of the condition. The classic symptoms of Parkinson's Disease include tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movements), and postural instability. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Low urine output is not a typical assessment finding associated with Parkinson's Disease. Exaggerated arm movements are not characteristic of the usual motor symptoms seen in Parkinson's Disease. While patients with Parkinson's Disease are at an increased risk for falls due to balance and coordination issues, 'Risk for Falls' is not an assessment finding but rather a potential nursing diagnosis based on the assessment findings.
3. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?
- A. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication.
- B. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy.
- C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.
- D. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. The standard treatment for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is surgical intervention to prevent rupture. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to expect is that the patient will be admitted to the surgical unit, and resection will be scheduled. Observation and medication (Choice A) are not sufficient for a rapidly enlarging aneurysm, and sclerotherapy (Choice B) is not typically used for aortic aneurysms. Discharging the patient home (Choice D) would be inappropriate and dangerous given the risk of rupture.
4. While caring for the client during the first hour after delivery, the nurse determines that the uterus is boggy and there is vaginal bleeding. What should be the nurse's first action?
- A. Check vital signs.
- B. Massage the fundus.
- C. Offer a bedpan.
- D. Check for perineal lacerations.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's first action should be to massage the fundus until it is firm as uterine atony is the primary cause of bleeding in the first hour after delivery. Massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, which can help control the bleeding. Checking vital signs would be important but addressing the primary cause of bleeding takes precedence. Offering a bedpan is not a priority in this situation as the focus should be on managing the postpartum bleeding. Checking for perineal lacerations is also important but not the initial action needed to address the boggy uterus and vaginal bleeding.
5. A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?
- A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of discharge
- B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching
- C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge
- D. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal as the patient is likely to be distracted and anxious at that time. Teaching the patient about discharge on the day of admission is not recommended because the patient may be more hypoxemic and anxious than usual, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain the information effectively. Therefore, arranging for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching session is the best option to ensure proper compliance and understanding of the discharge instructions.
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