Nursing Elites

1. What is the aim of the Magna Carta of Public Health Workers?

• A. Develop skills and capabilities of health workers to deliver health projects/programs
• B. All of these
• C. Encourage those with proper qualifications to remain in government service
• D. Promote social and economic well-being of health workers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - 'All of these.' The Magna Carta of Public Health Workers aims to achieve multiple objectives, including developing the skills and capabilities of health workers to deliver health projects/programs, encouraging those with proper qualifications to remain in government service, and promoting the social and economic well-being of health workers. Choice A, C, and D are all part of the comprehensive goals outlined in the Magna Carta for Public Health Workers.

2. A client has just returned to the medical-surgical unit following a segmental lung resection. After assessing the client, the first nursing action would be to:

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Suction excessive tracheobronchial secretions
• C. Assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a segmental lung resection, the priority nursing action should be to suction excessive tracheobronchial secretions. This helps in preventing airway obstruction from secretions, ensuring the patency of the airway and optimizing respiratory function. Administering pain medication can be important but addressing airway clearance takes precedence. Assisting the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough is essential for respiratory hygiene but not the first action immediately post-op. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial, but ensuring airway clearance is the priority to prevent complications.

3. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child with a greenstick fracture. In explaining this type of fracture to the parents, the best response by the nurse should be that

• A. A child's bone is more flexible and can be bent 45 degrees before breaking
• B. Bones of children are more porous than adults and often have incomplete breaks
• C. Compression of porous bones produces a buckle or torus type break
• D. Bone fragments often remain attached by a periosteal hinge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Greenstick fractures are common in children because their bones are softer and more porous than adult bones, leading to incomplete breaks when force is applied. Choice A is incorrect as greenstick fractures are not due to bone flexibility but rather the porous nature of children's bones. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a buckle or torus type break, which is not characteristic of a greenstick fracture. Choice D is incorrect as greenstick fractures do not involve bone fragments remaining attached by a periosteal hinge.

4. A 16-month-old child has just been admitted to the hospital. As the nurse assigned to this child enters the hospital room for the first time, the toddler runs to the mother, clings to her, and begins to cry. What would be the initial action by the nurse?

• A. Arrange for a change in client care assignments
• B. Explain that this behavior is expected
• C. Discuss the appropriate use of 'time-out'
• D. Explain that the child is in need of extra attention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain that this behavior is expected. At 16 months of age, children commonly experience separation anxiety, especially in unfamiliar environments like hospitals. It is important for the nurse to reassure the child and the parent that such behavior is normal. Option A is incorrect as there is no need to change client care assignments based on the child's behavior. Option C is not appropriate as discussing the use of 'time-out' is more relevant in behavior management for older children. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of the child's behavior related to separation anxiety.

5. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

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