Nursing Elites

1. What is the aim of the Magna Carta of Public Health Workers?

• A. Develop skills and capabilities of health workers to deliver health projects/programs
• B. All of these
• C. Encourage those with proper qualifications to remain in government service
• D. Promote social and economic well-being of health workers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - 'All of these.' The Magna Carta of Public Health Workers aims to achieve multiple objectives, including developing the skills and capabilities of health workers to deliver health projects/programs, encouraging those with proper qualifications to remain in government service, and promoting the social and economic well-being of health workers. Choice A, C, and D are all part of the comprehensive goals outlined in the Magna Carta for Public Health Workers.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is receiving lithium (Lithobid). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Lithium can lead to hyponatremia by affecting sodium balance in the body. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is unlikely with lithium use. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and hypercalcemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with lithium therapy for bipolar disorder.

3. Which of the following is a major focus of tertiary prevention?

• A. Preventing the onset of disease
• B. Early detection and treatment
• C. Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness
• D. Health education

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.' Tertiary prevention aims to minimize the effects of a disease or condition that is already established. Choices A, 'Preventing the onset of disease,' and B, 'Early detection and treatment,' are aspects of primary and secondary prevention, respectively. Choice D, 'Health education,' is more related to promoting awareness and knowledge rather than specifically focusing on reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.

4. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 4-6 hours
• C. 6-12 hours
• D. 12-24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

5. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client in congestive heart failure. Which finding suggests that digitalis levels should be reviewed?

• A. Extreme fatigue
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Intense itching
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme fatigue can be a sign of digitalis toxicity, especially in older adults, and warrants a review of the client's medication levels and potential adjustment. Increased appetite, intense itching, and constipation are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity and do not directly indicate a need for a review of digitalis levels.

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