Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has peptic ulcer disease about preventing exacerbations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use antacids containing magnesium frequently
• B. Limit alcohol consumption
• C. Eat smaller, frequent meals
• D. Increase caffeine intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit alcohol consumption. Alcohol consumption can aggravate peptic ulcer disease by increasing gastric acid secretion, potentially leading to exacerbations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended because antacids containing magnesium can interfere with other medications or conditions the client may have. Choice C is a good recommendation; however, it is not the priority instruction for preventing exacerbations. Choice D is also incorrect as caffeine can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can worsen peptic ulcer disease.

2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has dumping syndrome about measures to reduce manifestations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Drink plenty of fluids after meals
• B. Increase sugar intake
• C. Eat smaller, more frequent meals
• D. Avoid foods high in sugar content

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in teaching a client with dumping syndrome is to 'Avoid foods high in sugar content.' Dumping syndrome occurs when high-sugar foods move too quickly into the small intestine, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and bloating. By avoiding foods high in sugar content, the client can reduce these symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Drinking plenty of fluids after meals may exacerbate symptoms by speeding up the movement of food through the digestive system. Increasing sugar intake would worsen dumping syndrome symptoms. While eating smaller, more frequent meals is a good strategy, the key emphasis should be on avoiding high-sugar foods.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. What are the nursing interventions for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?

• A. Monitor INR levels and check for bleeding
• B. Administer antiplatelet therapy
• C. Check for signs of DVT and provide anticoagulation
• D. Administer aspirin and monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy is to monitor INR levels and check for signs of bleeding. Monitoring the INR levels helps assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulant therapy, while checking for bleeding is essential due to the increased risk associated with anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect as antiplatelet therapy is not the standard treatment for patients on anticoagulant therapy. Choice C is incorrect as providing additional anticoagulation is not a direct nursing intervention in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect because administering aspirin, an antiplatelet medication, along with anticoagulants can increase the risk of bleeding and is generally avoided.

5. What is the most important step when preparing to administer a blood transfusion?

• A. Check if the client has a fever
• B. Ensure the blood type is compatible with the client
• C. Administer the blood via IV push
• D. Ensure the blood is warmed to body temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensure the blood type is compatible with the client. This is the most crucial step in preparing for a blood transfusion to prevent severe transfusion reactions. Checking the client for a fever (Choice A) is important but not the most critical step. Administering blood via IV push (Choice C) is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered as a slow drip. Warming the blood to body temperature (Choice D) is not a standard practice and can lead to hemolysis, making it an incorrect choice.

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