ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. A client is concerned about extreme fatigue after an acute myocardial infarction. What is the best strategy the nurse can suggest to promote independence in self-care?
- A. Encourage the client to rest and let the healthcare team take over self-care tasks
- B. Instruct the client to gradually resume self-care tasks, with rest periods
- C. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks for the client
- D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best strategy to promote independence in self-care for a client concerned about extreme fatigue after an acute myocardial infarction is to instruct the client to gradually resume self-care tasks, with rest periods. This approach allows the client to regain independence without overexerting. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to rest completely and letting the healthcare team take over self-care tasks may hinder independence. Choice C is incorrect as assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks does not promote the client's independence. Choice D is not the best option as the primary focus should be on empowering the client to perform self-care tasks independently.
2. What are the signs of opioid withdrawal, and how should it be managed?
- A. Sweating, nausea; administer methadone
- B. Muscle cramps, vomiting; administer naloxone
- C. Tremors, sweating; administer buprenorphine
- D. Fever, agitation; provide sedatives
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
- C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.
4. The nurse is making a home visit with a client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The client recently started on lorazepam (Ativan) due to increased anxiety. The nurse is cautioning the family about the use of lorazepam (Ativan). The nurse should instruct the family to report which of the following significant side effects to the healthcare provider?
- A. Paradoxical excitement
- B. Headache
- C. Slowing of reflexes
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, paradoxical excitement. Lorazepam can cause an unexpected response of paradoxical excitement, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. This reaction is characterized by increased anxiety, restlessness, and agitation instead of the expected calming effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because headache, slowing of reflexes, and fatigue are more common side effects of lorazepam and may not warrant immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.
5. A client with active tuberculosis is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will continue taking my isoniazid until I am no longer contagious.
- B. I should take my prescribed medication for at least 6 months.
- C. I will need to have a TB skin test every 3 months.
- D. I should wear a mask at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should take antitubercular medications for a minimum of 6 months to ensure complete eradication of the infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication early can result in treatment failure and development of drug-resistant TB. Choice C is incorrect as regular TB skin tests are not needed once the client has been diagnosed and treated. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask at all times is not necessary for a client with active TB; proper cough etiquette should be followed instead.
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