a client is concerned about extreme fatigue after an acute myocardial infarction what is the best strategy the nurse can suggest to promote independen
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client is concerned about extreme fatigue after an acute myocardial infarction. What is the best strategy the nurse can suggest to promote independence in self-care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best strategy to promote independence in self-care for a client concerned about extreme fatigue after an acute myocardial infarction is to instruct the client to gradually resume self-care tasks, with rest periods. This approach allows the client to regain independence without overexerting. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to rest completely and letting the healthcare team take over self-care tasks may hinder independence. Choice C is incorrect as assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks does not promote the client's independence. Choice D is not the best option as the primary focus should be on empowering the client to perform self-care tasks independently.

2. What is the priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This is crucial to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space and should not be done without a specific medical indication. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing helps with lung expansion but is not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing may increase the risk of dislodging the chest tube or causing complications.

3. A nurse has administered medications to a group of clients. For which of the following client situations should the nurse complete an incident report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because administering insulin lispro to an NPO client can lead to hypoglycemia due to the lack of food to balance the medication. This situation poses a serious risk to the client's safety and should be documented in an incident report. Choice A is not as critical as insulin administration for an NPO client. Choice C is also serious but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Choice D, administering anticoagulants without checking the INR, is important but does not require an incident report unless adverse effects occur, as it may not immediately endanger the client's life.

4. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment, and how do you recognize signs of respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment should start with inspection (observing the breathing pattern), followed by palpation (feeling for abnormalities like crepitus), percussion (evaluating for dullness or hyperresonance), and auscultation (listening to lung sounds). This systematic approach helps to identify signs of respiratory distress, such as abnormal breath sounds, increased respiratory rate, use of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the standard order and sequence of a focused respiratory assessment.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

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