Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new diagnosis of Raynaud's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
• B. Keep your home environment warm.
• C. Elevate your legs when sitting.
• D. Reduce your intake of sodium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the home environment warm. Raynaud's disease causes vasospasm in response to cold, so maintaining a warm environment can help prevent attacks. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake, elevating legs when sitting, or reducing sodium intake are not specific to managing Raynaud's disease.

2. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?

• A. Assess level of consciousness and motor function
• B. Check for headache and nausea
• C. Monitor reflexes and pupil size
• D. Assess for tremors and confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.

3. What is the priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium?

• A. Administer anti-anxiety medication
• B. Identify any underlying causes of delirium
• C. Reduce environmental stimulation to calm the client
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium is to identify any underlying causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare providers can address the issue effectively and tailor the treatment plan accordingly. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice A) may help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of delirium. Similarly, reducing environmental stimulation (Choice C) and encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may provide some relief, but they do not target the primary concern of identifying and addressing the underlying causes of delirium.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

5. What is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Irritability
• C. Hypotension
• D. Decreased oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions accumulate in the airway, it can lead to discomfort and irritability in the client. Bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased oxygen saturation are usually later signs of inadequate airway clearance and oxygenation. Bradycardia may indicate severe hypoxia, while hypotension and decreased oxygen saturation are consequences of prolonged airway obstruction.

Similar Questions