Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client how to administer medication through a jejunostomy tube, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Flush the tube before and after each medication.
• B. Mix medications with enteral feeding.
• C. Push tablets through the tube slowly.
• D. Mix crushed medications before dissolving them in water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to flush the tube before and after each medication administration. This helps prevent clogging and ensures the medication is delivered properly. Mixing medications with enteral feeding (choice B) is incorrect as medications should be administered separately. Pushing tablets through the tube (choice C) is not recommended as they should be properly dissolved before administration. Mixing all crushed medications before dissolving them in water (choice D) is incorrect; medications should be dissolved individually to avoid interactions or inconsistencies in dosages.

2. The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis affecting the elbow. Which one of the following should be the priority?

• A. Limiting fluids
• B. Client-controlled analgesia
• C. Applying cold compresses to the elbow
• D. Performing passive range of motion exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, the priority intervention is effective pain management. Client-controlled analgesia allows the child to self-administer pain relief as needed, promoting comfort and reducing stress. Limiting fluids (choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as hydration is essential to prevent complications. Cold compresses (choice C) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Passive range of motion exercises (choice D) are contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis due to the risk of further pain and tissue damage.

3. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
• B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
• C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
• D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.

4. The charge nurse on the unit observes that one of the staff nurses is not using proper hand washing techniques. Which is the most appropriate initial approach to correct the behavior?

• A. Remind the nurse that proper hand washing prevents infection
• B. Discuss what the nurse knows about proper hand hygiene
• C. Provide a review of the hand washing policy
• D. Refer the nurse to the infection control nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial approach to correct the behavior of improper hand washing by a staff nurse is to discuss what the nurse knows about proper hand hygiene. This approach helps in identifying any knowledge gaps the nurse may have and provides an opportunity to educate and correct the behavior. Option A is not the best choice as simply reminding the nurse about the importance of hand washing may not address the underlying issue of knowledge or technique. Option C, providing a review of the hand washing policy, may be necessary but is not the most immediate step to take. Option D, referring the nurse to the infection control nurse, is premature and may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved through education and communication first.

5. A healthcare professional is planning to obtain the vital signs of a 2-year-old child who is experiencing diarrhea and who might have a right ear infection. Which of the following routes should the healthcare professional use to obtain the temperature?

• A. Temporal
• B. Oral
• C. Rectal
• D. Axillary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 2-year-old child with diarrhea and a possible ear infection, rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate reflection of core body temperature. This method provides the most reliable reading, especially in young children, as it closely reflects the core body temperature. Oral temperature may not be accurate due to the child's recent diarrhea, which can affect oral readings. Axillary temperature may not be as accurate as rectal temperature in this case. Temporal temperature measurement, although non-invasive, may not provide the most accurate core body temperature reading, especially in a child with a potential ear infection.

Similar Questions