HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. A client is being taught about dietary management of hypercholesterolemia. Which of the following foods should be suggested to add to the diet?
- A. Avocados
- B. Fried chicken
- C. Whole milk
- D. Bacon
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Avocados are a good choice to suggest adding to the diet of a client with hypercholesterolemia because they are high in healthy fats, particularly monounsaturated fats, which can help manage cholesterol levels. On the other hand, fried chicken, whole milk, and bacon are high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which should be limited in a diet aimed at managing hypercholesterolemia. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has signs of hemorrhagic shock. When the nurse notifies the surgeon, he directs her to continue measuring the client's vital signs every 15 minutes and call him back in 1 hour. From a legal perspective, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Document the provider's directive in the medical record
- B. Notify the nursing manager
- C. Consult the facility's risk manager
- D. Complete an incident report
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is facing a critical situation with a client showing signs of hemorrhagic shock. The surgeon's directive of waiting for an hour without providing immediate intervention poses a risk to the client's well-being. The nurse should prioritize the client's safety and advocate for timely and appropriate care. Notifying the nursing manager is the correct action as it activates the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care promptly. Documenting the provider's directive, consulting the risk manager, or completing an incident report are not the immediate actions needed to address the client's deteriorating condition and ensure patient safety.
3. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a standing patient. Which finding will the healthcare professional report as normal?
- A. When observed laterally, the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern.
- B. When observed posteriorly, the hips and shoulders form an 'S' pattern.
- C. The arms should be crossed over the chest or in the lap.
- D. The feet should be close together with toes pointed out.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a standing assessment, the healthcare professional should observe the patient laterally. In a normal body alignment, the head is erect, and the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern, aiding in maintaining balance and posture. Choice B is incorrect because hips and shoulders should be level and not form an 'S' pattern when observed posteriorly. Choice C is incorrect as the position of the arms is not a key indicator of body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as the feet should be shoulder-width apart with toes pointing forward for optimal balance and stability.
4. In planning care for a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome, nursing actions are based on the fact that the most likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to
- A. Stabilize alveolar surface tension
- B. Maintain alveolar surface tension
- C. Promote normal pulmonary blood flow
- D. Regulate intra-cardiac pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is often caused by a deficiency in surfactant, a substance that helps maintain alveolar surface tension. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, making it difficult for the infant to oxygenate effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stabilizing alveolar surface tension is not the issue, promoting normal pulmonary blood flow and regulating intra-cardiac pressure are not directly related to the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.
5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Gingival hyperplasia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.
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