Nursing Elites

1. A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?

• A. Oil retention
• B. Soapsuds
• C. Saline
• D. Hypertonic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.

2. The client is being taught about the use of syringes and needles for home administration of medications. Which action by the client indicates an understanding of standard precautions?

• A. Remove the needle after discarding used syringes
• B. Wear gloves while disposing of the needle and syringe
• C. Wear a face mask during medication administration
• D. Wash hands before handling the needle and syringe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Washing hands before handling the needle and syringe is a critical step in infection control and adherence to standard precautions. Clean hands help prevent the transfer of microorganisms and reduce the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to standard precautions. Removing the needle after discarding used syringes (Choice A) can increase the risk of needlestick injuries. Wearing gloves while disposing of the needle and syringe (Choice B) is important for personal protection but does not specifically address standard precautions. Wearing a face mask during medication administration (Choice C) is not directly related to handling syringes and needles, which are more pertinent to standard precautions.

3. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

• A. Reflex incontinence
• B. Allergic to shellfish
• C. Claustrophobia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

4. A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago but feels fine now. What action is best for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time.
• B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube.
• D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a client experiences severe coughing following nasogastric tube feedings, it is crucial to verify proper tube placement. Checking the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube helps confirm the tube's correct positioning. Option A is incorrect because further action is necessary to ensure the client's safety. Option B is inappropriate as it suggests stopping the feeding without assessing the tube's placement. Option D is incorrect as injecting air into the tube may lead to further complications if the tube is not positioned correctly.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

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