HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is reviewing the basal body temperature method with a couple. Which of the following statements would indicate that the teaching has been successful?
- A. I don't need to buy a special type of thermometer.
- B. I need to wait 5 minutes after smoking a cigarette before I take my temperature.
- C. I need to take my temperature before I get out of bed in the morning.
- D. I need to take my temperature at least once every day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Basal body temperature must be taken before getting out of bed in the morning to get an accurate reading, as even slight activity can raise body temperature and affect the results. Choice A is incorrect because a special type of thermometer is not required for basal body temperature measurement. Choice B is incorrect because smoking can affect body temperature, but the timing mentioned is not relevant to basal body temperature measurement. Choice D is incorrect because while it is essential to take the temperature consistently each day, the duration of temperature measurement is not specified, making this choice less specific compared to the correct answer.
2. A client who had a left hemicolectomy is experiencing a low-grade fever on post-operative day three. What is the nurse's best action?
- A. Encourage deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer.
- B. Administer antipyretic medication as prescribed.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A low-grade fever on post-operative day three can be a sign of atelectasis, a common post-operative complication. Encouraging deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer can help prevent and treat this condition. Atelectasis is often due to shallow breathing, so option A is the best initial action to promote lung expansion. Administering antipyretic medication (option B) may help reduce the fever but does not directly address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (option C) is not necessary at this point unless other concerning symptoms are present. Increasing the client’s fluid intake (option D) is important for overall recovery but is not the priority in this scenario.
3. The PN reviews a client's medication history and learns that the client takes an anticoagulant and has recently started taking phenytoin. Which instruction should the PN provide when assigning the client's morning care to a UAP?
- A. Measure the temperature every 4 hours
- B. Elevate both feet on two pillows
- C. Initiate hourly turning schedule
- D. Protect skin from injury and bruising
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Protect skin from injury and bruising. Phenytoin and anticoagulants both increase the risk of bleeding. Protecting the skin from injury and bruising is critical to prevent complications, making it important to instruct the UAP accordingly. Measuring the temperature every 4 hours (Choice A) may not be directly related to the client's medications. Elevating both feet on two pillows (Choice B) is more relevant for issues like edema. Initiating an hourly turning schedule (Choice C) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, but in this case, the priority is to prevent bleeding due to the medications.
4. What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Insulin deficiency
- B. Overhydration
- C. Excess carbohydrate intake
- D. Excess insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insulin deficiency. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to a severe lack of insulin, causing the body to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones and acidification of the blood. Option B, Overhydration, is incorrect as DKA is characterized by dehydration rather than overhydration. Option C, Excess carbohydrate intake, is incorrect because while high blood sugar levels can contribute to DKA, the primary cause is insulin deficiency. Option D, Excess insulin, is also incorrect as DKA is not caused by an excess of insulin but rather by a lack of it.
5. A client who is post-operative from a bowel resection is experiencing abdominal distention and pain. The nurse notices the client has not passed gas or had a bowel movement. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client's bowel sounds.
- B. The client's fluid intake.
- C. The client's pain level.
- D. The client's surgical incision.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing bowel sounds is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the client's gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly. Absent or hypoactive bowel sounds can indicate an ileus, a common post-operative complication. Assessing fluid intake (Choice B) is important but should come after assessing bowel sounds. Pain assessment (Choice C) is essential but addressing the physiological issue should take precedence. Checking the surgical incision (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority when the client is experiencing abdominal distention and potential gastrointestinal complications.
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