Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself once a week.
• B. I will take my diuretic medication in the evening.
• C. I will limit my fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
• D. I will call my doctor if I notice swelling in my feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Swelling in the feet can indicate worsening heart failure due to fluid retention, and clients should report this to their healthcare provider immediately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weighing once a week may not provide timely information on fluid retention, timing of diuretic medication is usually advised in the morning to prevent nocturia, and limiting fluid intake to 3 liters per day may not be appropriate for all clients with heart failure.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of fluoxetine. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can take several weeks for effects to be noticed
• B. It is an antipsychotic medication
• C. It should be taken at night
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When educating a client about fluoxetine, it is essential to mention that it can take several weeks for the therapeutic effects to be noticed. This is because fluoxetine is an SSRI that requires time to build up in the body and start producing its intended effects. Choice B is incorrect as fluoxetine is not an antipsychotic medication but an SSRI. Choice C is inaccurate because fluoxetine can be taken at any time of the day, and there is no specific requirement to take it at night. Choice D is incorrect as all medications, including fluoxetine, have potential side effects that should be discussed with the client.

3. A nurse is planning to administer an injection of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure client safety?

• A. Instruct the client to take a deep breath during administration.
• B. Administer the medication over 30 seconds.
• C. Verify the client’s pain level.
• D. Have naloxone available in case of respiratory depression.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to have naloxone available in case of respiratory depression. Morphine is an opioid that can lead to respiratory depression, especially in higher doses. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose and should be readily accessible when administering morphine to reverse respiratory depression if it occurs. Instructing the client to take a deep breath during administration (choice A) is not directly related to ensuring safety in this scenario. Administering the medication over 30 seconds (choice B) may help with the comfort of the client but does not address the potential risk of respiratory depression. Verifying the client's pain level (choice C) is important but not the primary action to ensure safety when administering morphine.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client who has a prescription. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my morning pills with food or milk.
• B. I will weigh myself every day.
• C. I will notify the nurse if I have muscle cramps.
• D. I will limit my intake of fish.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. There is no need to limit fish intake with furosemide, indicating a misunderstanding of dietary restrictions. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body get rid of excess water and salt. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions for a client taking furosemide. Taking morning pills with food or milk can help reduce stomach upset, weighing oneself daily helps monitor fluid retention, and notifying the nurse about muscle cramps can be important due to potential electrolyte imbalances.

5. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors.
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production.
• C. Fortification of bones.
• D. Suppression of candidiasis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

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