Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

2. A community nurse is instructing a group of high school students about the transmission of hepatitis A. Which mode of transmission should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Sexual contact
• B. Airborne droplets
• C. Fecal-oral
• D. Bloodborne

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fecal-oral. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, often from consuming contaminated food or water. Choice A, sexual contact, is not a typical mode of transmission for hepatitis A. Choice B, airborne droplets, is more characteristic of diseases like influenza or tuberculosis. Choice D, bloodborne transmission, is more relevant to hepatitis B and C, not hepatitis A.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has tuberculosis (TB) and is prescribed rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a reddish-orange color.
• B. You should expect to take this medication for at least 6 months.
• C. You should avoid eating dairy products while on this medication.
• D. This medication can cause sensitivity to sunlight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin can cause harmless red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, sweat, and tears. Clients should be informed about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because the duration of rifampin therapy for TB is typically longer than 6 months. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while on rifampin. Choice D is incorrect as rifampin does not cause sensitivity to sunlight.

4. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for an antidepressant. The client reports experiencing dry mouth. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

• A. Decrease fluid intake.
• B. Chew sugarless gum.
• C. Avoid using mouthwash.
• D. Increase intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to chew sugarless gum. Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth by stimulating saliva production, which is a common side effect of many antidepressants. Decreasing fluid intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can worsen dry mouth. Avoiding mouthwash (choice C) is not as effective as chewing gum in stimulating saliva. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice D) is not directly related to managing dry mouth caused by antidepressants.

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