ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Pruritus
- B. Hypertension
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Xerostomia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Restrict protein intake to the RDA
- C. Increase dietary potassium
- D. Encourage foods high in sodium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with chronic renal failure is to restrict protein intake to the RDA. This is important because limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste products that the kidneys are unable to efficiently excrete. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) may further burden the kidneys, increasing the risk of fluid overload. Increasing dietary potassium (choice C) is not recommended in chronic renal failure as impaired kidneys have difficulty regulating potassium levels. Encouraging foods high in sodium (choice D) is also not appropriate as excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are detrimental in renal failure.
3. A nurse is checking laboratory results for a client. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates hypervolemia?
- A. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
- B. Urine specific gravity 1.001
- C. Serum calcium 10 mg/dL
- D. Urine pH 6
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity of 1.001 is low and indicates dilute urine, which is a sign of fluid overload (hypervolemia). Choice A, serum sodium 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not indicate hypervolemia. Choice C, serum calcium 10 mg/dL, is not typically used to diagnose hypervolemia. Choice D, urine pH 6, is also not a specific indicator of hypervolemia.
4. A child is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take at bedtime
- C. Take with a glass of milk
- D. Take with a glass of orange juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to take ferrous sulfate with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances iron absorption. Taking iron with milk (choice C) is not recommended as it reduces iron absorption. Taking it with meals (choice A) can hinder its absorption due to other food components. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) doesn't affect absorption but might cause gastrointestinal upset in some individuals.
5. Which of the following are contraindications to salicylic acid therapy?
- A. Third trimester of pregnancy
- B. Thrombocytopenia
- C. Coronary artery disease
- D. Adolescents with chickenpox
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Third trimester of pregnancy. Salicylic acid is contraindicated during the third trimester of pregnancy due to the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus. Thrombocytopenia (choice B) is not a contraindication to salicylic acid therapy. Coronary artery disease (choice C) is not a specific contraindication to salicylic acid therapy. However, caution should be exercised in patients with coronary artery disease due to the antiplatelet effects of salicylic acid. Adolescents with chickenpox (choice D) should not be given salicylic acid due to the risk of Reye Syndrome, a rare but serious illness.
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