Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Pruritus
• B. Hypertension
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Xerostomia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. A Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65.
• B. Pap tests are recommended following removal of the ovaries.
• C. Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.
• D. Viral infections cannot be detected by a Pap test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased respiratory rate
• B. Use of accessory muscles
• C. Improved lung sounds
• D. Increased energy levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of accessory muscles.' Clients with COPD often experience airway obstruction, leading to the use of accessory muscles to breathe. This compensatory mechanism helps them overcome the increased work of breathing. Choice A, 'Decreased respiratory rate,' is incorrect because clients with COPD typically have an increased respiratory rate due to the need for more effort to breathe. Choice C, 'Improved lung sounds,' is incorrect because COPD is characterized by wheezes, crackles, and diminished breath sounds. Choice D, 'Increased energy levels,' is incorrect because clients with COPD often experience fatigue due to the increased work of breathing and impaired gas exchange.

4. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Atropine
• D. Diazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

5. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Pale skin
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Pale skin.' Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, which affects the skin color. Anemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, leading to a paler complexion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Increased energy' is not typically associated with anemia, as fatigue is a common symptom. 'Elevated blood pressure' is not a typical finding in anemia; instead, anemia may cause hypotension. 'Weight gain' is not a direct symptom of anemia; in fact, weight loss may occur in some cases due to reduced appetite or other factors associated with anemia.

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