Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Pruritus
• B. Hypertension
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Xerostomia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.

2. A client with a history of seizures is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Ensure the environment is safe
• B. Administer medications as prescribed
• C. Monitor for signs of infection
• D. Educate the client about triggers

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize ensuring the environment is safe for a client with a history of seizures. This intervention is crucial to prevent injury during a seizure. Administering medications as prescribed is important but ensuring a safe environment takes precedence to prevent harm. Monitoring for signs of infection and educating the client about triggers are also essential aspects of care but are not the priority when considering the immediate safety of the client during a seizure.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Call the provider if the respiratory rate is less than 18/min
• B. Administer a 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
• C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
• D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension and heart failure. It helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevent fluid retention. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A focuses on a respiratory rate, which is not specific to heart failure management. Option B suggests administering a large IV bolus of fluid, which can worsen heart failure by increasing fluid volume. Option D addresses the pulse rate, which is not a typical parameter to monitor for heart failure specifically.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client’s care plan. Which of the following goals is most appropriate?

• A. Client will inject insulin twice daily
• B. Client will keep appointments with the healthcare provider for 6 months
• C. Client's A1c will be 5% within one year
• D. Client's blood glucose will stay between 60-120 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A1c is a key indicator of long-term diabetes management, reflecting average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Achieving a target A1c of 5% indicates good control of blood sugar levels and reduces the risk of diabetes-related complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as appropriate as they focus on short-term tasks or individual blood glucose readings, rather than long-term management and outcomes.

5. A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?

• A. 18.5
• B. 24.9
• C. 25
• D. 32

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.

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