ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Pruritus
- B. Hypertension
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Xerostomia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Dry, cracked lips
- B. Bleeding gums
- C. Foul-smelling breath
- D. Red, open sores in the mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.
3. When admitting a client with fever, confusion, and decreased level of consciousness, what should the nurse do first after obtaining the client's history and assessment?
- A. Identify the client's needs
- B. Start intravenous fluids
- C. Notify the provider
- D. Conduct a neurological assessment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client presents with fever, confusion, and decreased level of consciousness, the first step should be to identify the client's needs. This involves recognizing any immediate concerns or issues that require urgent attention. Starting intravenous fluids, notifying the provider, or conducting a neurological assessment may be necessary actions but should come after identifying the client's needs to ensure proper prioritization of care.
4. A nurse is providing education on the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can increase the risk of bleeding
- B. It is safe to give to children
- C. It should be taken on an empty stomach
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can increase the risk of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to have antiplatelet effects and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially if taken in high doses or for prolonged periods. Choice B is incorrect because aspirin is not safe for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcers, or allergic reactions.
5. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?
- A. The chest
- B. Standing
- C. Supine
- D. Left lateral
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.
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