Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse?

• A. Schedule a support session for the client.
• B. Explain the techniques of esophageal speech.
• C. Review the use of artificial larynx with the client.
• D. Determine the client's reading ability.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy is to explain the techniques of esophageal speech. This is crucial for the client's post-surgery communication. Option A, scheduling a support session, is important but not the priority as ensuring the client can communicate effectively comes first. Option C, reviewing the use of artificial larynx, is relevant but not the priority compared to teaching esophageal speech. Option D, determining the client's reading ability, is not as critical as ensuring the client learns a primary method of communication following the laryngectomy.

2. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• D. Assess the client's urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical action for the nurse to take when a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps in assessing the client's current glycemic status and guides further interventions. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice B) may be beneficial in managing dehydration caused by polyuria, but it does not address the underlying cause of hyperglycemia. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) may be necessary based on the blood glucose monitoring results, but monitoring should precede any medication administration. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the primary concern of evaluating and managing hyperglycemia in a client with diabetes.

3. A client is scheduled for an appendectomy and has given informed consent. Which statement by the client should the nurse address first preoperatively?

• A. “I am afraid to walk if it hurts too much.”
• B. “I don’t understand why I need this surgery.”
• C. “I don’t want my family helping me after the surgery.”
• D. “I am afraid the scar will make me look disfigured.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should address the client's lack of understanding regarding the need for surgery first. Ensuring that the client comprehends the rationale for the procedure is essential for informed consent. Choices A, C, and D, while important, do not directly impact the client's understanding of the necessity of the surgery and can be addressed after clarifying the reason for the procedure.

4. When documenting client care, which of the following abbreviations should be used?

• A. SS for sliding scale
• B. BRP for bathroom privileges
• C. OJ for orange juice
• D. SQ for subcutaneous

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When documenting client care, it is crucial to use standardized abbreviations to ensure clear communication and prevent misunderstandings. BRP for bathroom privileges is a recognized and commonly used abbreviation in healthcare settings. Choice A, SS for sliding scale, is not a standard abbreviation and can lead to confusion as it could be mistaken for other meanings. Choice C, OJ for orange juice, is informal and may not be universally understood in a healthcare context. Choice D, SQ for subcutaneous, is a valid abbreviation but may not be as relevant in the context of documenting client care compared to BRP, which is more specific and widely accepted.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The healthcare professional should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

• A. Erythema on pressure points
• B. Lower-extremity pulse strength of 2+
• C. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL per day
• D. A bowel movement every other day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema on pressure points indicates potential skin breakdown due to prolonged immobility. It requires immediate intervention to prevent pressure ulcers. Lower-extremity pulse strength of 2+ is a normal finding, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL per day is within the normal range and promotes hydration. A bowel movement every other day is a reasonable frequency for some individuals and does not necessarily indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.

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