Nursing Elites

1. While caring for an older adult client who is violent and attempting to disconnect her IV lines, the provider prescribes soft wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take while the client is in restraints?

• A. Remove the restraints one at a time
• B. Secure the restraints tightly to prevent movement
• C. Check the restraints every hour
• D. Use leather restraints for additional security

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Removing restraints one at a time is the correct action to take when caring for a client in soft wrist restraints. This approach ensures safety and comfort while still maintaining the necessary restrictions. Choice B is incorrect as securing the restraints tightly can lead to circulatory issues and discomfort. Choice C of checking the restraints every hour is a reasonable action, but it is not the priority when compared to the correct choice of removing the restraints one at a time. Choice D of using leather restraints for additional security is unnecessary and may be more restrictive and uncomfortable for the client.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has had a stroke, resulting in aphasia and dysphagia. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

• A. Assist the client with a partial bed bath
• B. Measure the client's BP after the nurse administers an antihypertensive medication
• C. Use a communication board to ask what the client wants for lunch
• D. Feed the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assign the task of assisting the client with a partial bed bath to an assistive personnel (AP). APs are trained to provide basic care tasks like hygiene assistance. Options B, C, and D involve more complex tasks such as measuring BP, using a communication board for speech-impaired clients, and feeding, which require nursing judgment and skills beyond basic care. Therefore, these tasks should be performed by licensed nursing staff who can assess, communicate effectively, and address the specific medical and safety needs of the client.

3. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

• A. Chocolate pudding.
• B. Graham crackers.
• C. Sugar-free gelatin.
• D. Apple slices.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of congestive heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Shortness of breath on exertion
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in a week
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are concerning because they indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of congestive heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, requiring immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress and worsening heart failure. While shortness of breath on exertion, weight gain, and orthopnea are common signs and symptoms of heart failure, crackles specifically point to acute pulmonary edema or worsening congestion, making them the most concerning finding in this scenario.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

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