ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of levothyroxine. Which of the following should the healthcare provider do?
- A. Give it with food
- B. Assess the patient's heart rate
- C. Administer it in the evening
- D. Give it with calcium supplements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient's heart rate. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication that can increase metabolism. One of the potential side effects of levothyroxine is tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Therefore, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the patient's heart rate before administering the medication to monitor for any signs of tachycardia. Giving levothyroxine with food may affect its absorption, so it is typically recommended to administer it on an empty stomach. Administering it in the evening is not necessary unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider, and giving it with calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.
2. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Low potassium
- D. Low magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.
3. A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?
- A. 18.5
- B. 24.9
- C. 25
- D. 32
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.
4. A nurse is assessing a client with pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Abdominal pain
- C. Weight gain
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal pain. Abdominal pain, often severe, is a hallmark sign of pancreatitis. Other common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and tenderness in the abdomen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and elevated blood pressure are not typically associated with pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing for abdominal pain in a client with suspected pancreatitis.
5. Which of the following are contraindications to salicylic acid therapy?
- A. Third trimester of pregnancy
- B. Thrombocytopenia
- C. Coronary artery disease
- D. Adolescents with chickenpox
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Third trimester of pregnancy. Salicylic acid is contraindicated during the third trimester of pregnancy due to the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus. Thrombocytopenia (choice B) is not a contraindication to salicylic acid therapy. Coronary artery disease (choice C) is not a specific contraindication to salicylic acid therapy. However, caution should be exercised in patients with coronary artery disease due to the antiplatelet effects of salicylic acid. Adolescents with chickenpox (choice D) should not be given salicylic acid due to the risk of Reye Syndrome, a rare but serious illness.
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