ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is planning to delegate to an AP the task of fasting blood glucose testing for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Determine if the AP is qualified to perform the test
- B. Help the AP perform the blood glucose test
- C. Assign the AP to ask the client if they have taken diabetic medication today
- D. Have the AP check the medical record for prior blood glucose test results
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before delegating any task, the nurse must determine whether the AP is qualified to perform it. In this scenario, verifying the AP's competency to conduct fasting blood glucose testing is crucial for patient safety and compliance with facility protocols. The other choices are incorrect because they do not address the essential step of assessing the AP's ability to perform the delegated task. While helping the AP or assigning tasks related to diabetic medication or medical records are important, the primary concern should be confirming the AP's competence for the specific delegated duty of blood glucose testing.
2. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1 hour old and has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with periods of apnea lasting up to 10 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Stimulate the newborn
- C. Initiate positive pressure ventilation
- D. Continue routine monitoring
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with occasional periods of apnea lasting less than 15 seconds is normal for a newborn. The nurse should continue routine monitoring unless the apneic periods become prolonged or the newborn shows signs of respiratory distress. Administering oxygen or initiating positive pressure ventilation is not indicated in this scenario as the newborn's respiratory rate and apneic episodes are within normal limits for their age. Stimulating the newborn is also unnecessary since the described parameters fall within the expected range for a 1-hour-old infant.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication to this vaccine?
- A. The possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks
- B. Client allergy to strawberry
- C. Client history of genital herpes
- D. The possibility of overseas travel in the next month
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The MMR vaccine is contraindicated in pregnant women due to the risk of fetal harm. It is recommended that women avoid becoming pregnant for at least 4 weeks after receiving the vaccine. Choice B, client allergy to strawberry, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice C, client history of genital herpes, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice D, the possibility of overseas travel in the next month, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine.
4. A nurse is performing a vaginal exam on a client who is in active labor. The nurse notes the umbilical cord protruding through the cervix. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer oxytocin to the client via intravenous infusion
- B. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
- C. Prepare for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter
- D. Assist the client into the knee-chest position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should assist the client into the knee-chest position to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord. This position helps to prevent cord compression and improves fetal oxygenation. Administering oxytocin (Choice A) could worsen the situation by increasing contractions and potentially compressing the umbilical cord. Applying oxygen (Choice B) is not the priority in this emergency situation. Preparing for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter (Choice C) is not appropriate as the immediate concern is relieving pressure on the umbilical cord.
5. A client has been taking propranolol. Which of the following findings indicates a need to withhold the medication?
- A. Sodium 130 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 156/90 mm Hg
- C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Pulse 54/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulse of 54/min indicates bradycardia, which is a side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker. The medication should be withheld if the client's pulse drops below 60/min. The other findings (sodium levels, blood pressure, and potassium levels) are not directly indicative of the need to withhold propranolol.
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