Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to delegate to an AP the task of fasting blood glucose testing for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Determine if the AP is qualified to perform the test
• B. Help the AP perform the blood glucose test
• C. Assign the AP to ask the client if they have taken diabetic medication today
• D. Have the AP check the medical record for prior blood glucose test results

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before delegating any task, the nurse must determine whether the AP is qualified to perform it. In this scenario, verifying the AP's competency to conduct fasting blood glucose testing is crucial for patient safety and compliance with facility protocols. The other choices are incorrect because they do not address the essential step of assessing the AP's ability to perform the delegated task. While helping the AP or assigning tasks related to diabetic medication or medical records are important, the primary concern should be confirming the AP's competence for the specific delegated duty of blood glucose testing.

2. A client is in the transition phase of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assist the client to void every 3 hours
• B. Monitor contractions every 30 minutes
• C. Place the client in a lithotomy position
• D. Encourage the client to use a pant-blow breathing pattern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use a pant-blow breathing pattern is crucial during the transition phase of labor. This phase is characterized by intense contractions and emotional responses. Pant-blow breathing helps manage pain and anxiety, providing comfort and support to the client. Voiding every 3 hours is not specific to the transition phase and may not address immediate needs. Monitoring contractions every 30 minutes is important but may not be as directly beneficial as focusing on coping mechanisms like breathing techniques. Placing the client in a lithotomy position is generally not recommended during the transition phase as it can impede progress and comfort.

3. An antepartum client is Rh negative and understands that she will receive a RhoGAM injection during her pregnancy. The client asks the nurse if she will also receive a RhoGAM injection after the birth of her baby. The client will receive RhoGAM after the birth if blood tests are:

• A. Mother Rh positive; baby Rh negative
• B. Mother Rh negative; Coombs positive; baby Rh negative
• C. Mother Rh positive; Coombs negative; baby Rh positive
• D. Mother Rh negative; Coombs negative; baby Rh positive

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. If the baby is Rh positive and the mother is Rh negative, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood. RhoGAM is administered to prevent the mother's immune system from becoming sensitized to Rh-positive blood. Therefore, the mother, who is Rh negative, will receive RhoGAM after birth if the baby is Rh positive and both the mother and baby have negative Coombs tests. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not match the criteria for RhoGAM administration in this scenario.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to transfer a client from a chair to the bed. The client can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. Which device should the healthcare provider use?

• A. A wheelchair
• B. A stand-assist lift
• C. A transfer belt
• D. A slide board

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stand-assist lift is the most suitable device for transferring a client who can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. This device provides support and assistance for the client to stand up and transfer safely. Choice A, a wheelchair, is not designed for this purpose and is used for mobility. Choice C, a transfer belt, is helpful for providing stability during transfers but may not be sufficient for a client with partial weight-bearing. Choice D, a slide board, is more suitable for transferring clients who are unable to bear weight and need assistance for lateral transfers.

5. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
• B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
• C. No action is needed at this time.
• D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

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