HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?
- A. SBAR
- B. SOAP
- C. PIE
- D. DAR
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.
2. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?
- A. Providing cholesterol screening
- B. Teaching about a healthy diet
- C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
- D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.
3. The healthcare professional is caring for a client who is post-operative following a hip replacement. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Pain at the surgical site
- B. Swelling in the affected leg
- C. Elevated temperature
- D. Shortness of breath
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical assessment finding that could indicate a pulmonary embolism or other serious complication related to surgery, such as a respiratory issue or cardiac problem. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Pain at the surgical site is common post-operatively and can be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Swelling in the affected leg is expected after a hip replacement and can often be managed conservatively or monitored closely. An elevated temperature could be a sign of infection, which is important to address but may not require immediate intervention unless other symptoms of sepsis are present.
4. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?
- A. I will take my warfarin at the same time every day.
- B. I should increase my intake of green leafy vegetables.
- C. I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.
- D. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.' Using a soft-bristled toothbrush is crucial as it helps prevent bleeding gums, which is a potential side effect of warfarin therapy. Option A about taking warfarin at the same time every day is a good practice but does not directly relate to preventing side effects. Option B suggesting an increase in green leafy vegetables can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects due to their vitamin K content. Option D advising to avoid alcohol is generally recommended but is not directly related to the specific side effects of warfarin.
5. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
- A. Screening for early symptoms
- B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
- C. Elimination of the exposure
- D. Increasing awareness of symptoms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.
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