HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions
1. A healthcare professional is preparing a presentation for a parent group about musculoskeletal injuries. When describing a child's risk for this type of injury, the professional integrates knowledge that bone growth occurs primarily in which area?
- A. Growth plate.
- B. Epiphysis.
- C. Physis.
- D. Metaphysis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bone growth primarily occurs in the epiphysis, which is the area where growth plates are located. The epiphysis is responsible for longitudinal bone growth. The growth plate, also known as the physis, is the cartilaginous region in the metaphysis where bone growth occurs. The metaphysis is the area between the epiphysis and diaphysis where bone lengthening occurs, but it is not the primary site of bone growth. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
2. A 1-week-old infant has been in the pediatric unit for 18 hours following placement of a spica cast. The nurse observes a respiratory rate of fewer than 24 breaths/min. No other changes are noted. Because the infant is apparently well, the nurse does not report or document the slow respiratory rate. Several hours later, the infant experiences severe respiratory distress, and emergency care is necessary. What should be considered if legal action is taken?
- A. Most infants have slow respirations when they are uncomfortable.
- B. The respiratory rates of young infants are irregular, so a drop in rate is unimportant.
- C. Vital signs that are outside the expected parameters are significant and should be documented.
- D. The respiratory tract of young infants is underdeveloped, and their respiratory rate is not significant.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse failed to report or document the slow respiratory rate of the infant, which later led to severe respiratory distress. It is crucial to understand that any vital signs outside the expected range in an infant should be documented and reported promptly. This documentation is vital for monitoring the infant's condition, identifying potential issues, and ensuring timely intervention if needed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they downplay the significance of abnormal vital signs and fail to emphasize the importance of documentation and reporting in infant care.
3. A 2-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease. What is the primary goal of therapy during the acute phase?
- A. Preventing coronary artery aneurysms
- B. Reducing fever
- C. Improving cardiac function
- D. Preventing dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary goal of therapy during the acute phase of Kawasaki disease is to prevent coronary artery aneurysms, which are a serious complication of this condition. Coronary artery aneurysms can lead to long-term cardiovascular issues, making prevention crucial. While reducing fever and improving cardiac function are important aspects of managing Kawasaki disease, the primary focus in the acute phase is on preventing coronary artery aneurysms. Dehydration prevention is also essential but not the primary goal during the acute phase of this disease.
4. Which observation made of the exposed abdomen is most indicative of pyloric stenosis?
- A. abdominal rigidity
- B. substernal retraction
- C. palpable olive-like mass
- D. marked distention of lower abdomen
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: palpable olive-like mass. In pyloric stenosis, a palpable olive-like mass can often be felt in the abdomen due to the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. This mass is a key characteristic finding in infants with pyloric stenosis. Choice A, abdominal rigidity, is more commonly associated with conditions like peritonitis. Choice B, substernal retraction, is not typically seen in pyloric stenosis but can be a sign of respiratory distress. Choice D, marked distention of the lower abdomen, is not specific to pyloric stenosis and can be present in various abdominal conditions.
5. Why should the nurse closely monitor the IV flow rate for a 5-month-old infant with severe diarrhea receiving IV fluids?
- A. Limiting output
- B. Replacing lost fluids
- C. Avoiding IV infiltration
- D. Preventing cardiac overload
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Preventing cardiac overload. Infants are highly vulnerable to fluid overload, making it essential to carefully monitor IV flow rates to prevent complications such as cardiac overload. Rapid administration of IV fluids can lead to an excessive increase in circulating volume, potentially causing cardiac strain or heart failure in infants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Monitoring the IV flow rate is not primarily aimed at limiting output, replacing lost fluids, or avoiding IV infiltration in this scenario. The key concern is to prevent the risk of cardiac overload due to the infant's susceptibility to fluid imbalances.
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