HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions
1. When explaining a viral disease that begins with malaise and a highly pruritic rash starting on the abdomen, spreading to the face and proximal extremities, and potentially leading to severe complications, which childhood disease is a nurse discussing with members of a grammar school’s Parent-Teachers Association?
- A. Rubella
- B. Rubeola
- C. Chickenpox
- D. Scarlet fever
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Chickenpox (varicella). This viral disease typically starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen and then spreads to the face and proximal extremities. Chickenpox can result in serious complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a milder rash and is less pruritic than chickenpox. Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a rash that spreads from the head to the trunk. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria and is not a viral illness.
2. A 5-year-old child with a diagnosis of asthma is being evaluated for medication management. What is an important assessment for the nurse to perform?
- A. Assess the child's sleep patterns
- B. Assess the child's dietary intake
- C. Assess the child's academic performance
- D. Assess the child's behavior at home
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the child's dietary intake is crucial for managing asthma symptoms as certain foods can trigger or worsen asthma attacks. Monitoring dietary intake helps ensure the child receives proper nutrition and avoids triggers. Assessing sleep patterns (Choice A) may be relevant but not as directly impactful on asthma management. Academic performance (Choice C) and behavior at home (Choice D) are important aspects of a child's overall health but are not as directly related to asthma management as dietary intake.
3. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?
- A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
- B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
- C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
- D. The parents should discuss this with their healthcare provider at the next visit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Live vaccines, like the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, should not be administered to immunosuppressed infants, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. The weakened immune system of these infants may not be able to handle live vaccines safely, potentially leading to severe complications. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid giving live vaccines like MMR to infants receiving chemotherapy. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age is not the main concern in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because although MMR vaccination is important for disease prevention, it should not be given to immunosuppressed infants. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is needed to prevent potential harm from live vaccines in immunosuppressed infants.
4. Why should the nurse closely monitor the IV flow rate for a 5-month-old infant with severe diarrhea receiving IV fluids?
- A. Limiting output
- B. Replacing lost fluids
- C. Avoiding IV infiltration
- D. Preventing cardiac overload
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Preventing cardiac overload. Infants are highly vulnerable to fluid overload, making it essential to carefully monitor IV flow rates to prevent complications such as cardiac overload. Rapid administration of IV fluids can lead to an excessive increase in circulating volume, potentially causing cardiac strain or heart failure in infants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Monitoring the IV flow rate is not primarily aimed at limiting output, replacing lost fluids, or avoiding IV infiltration in this scenario. The key concern is to prevent the risk of cardiac overload due to the infant's susceptibility to fluid imbalances.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing a presentation for a parent group about musculoskeletal injuries. When describing a child's risk for this type of injury, the professional integrates knowledge that bone growth occurs primarily in which area?
- A. Growth plate.
- B. Epiphysis.
- C. Physis.
- D. Metaphysis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bone growth primarily occurs in the epiphysis, which is the area where growth plates are located. The epiphysis is responsible for longitudinal bone growth. The growth plate, also known as the physis, is the cartilaginous region in the metaphysis where bone growth occurs. The metaphysis is the area between the epiphysis and diaphysis where bone lengthening occurs, but it is not the primary site of bone growth. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
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