Nursing Elites

1. When explaining a viral disease that begins with malaise and a highly pruritic rash starting on the abdomen, spreading to the face and proximal extremities, and potentially leading to severe complications, which childhood disease is a nurse discussing with members of a grammar school’s Parent-Teachers Association?

• A. Rubella
• B. Rubeola
• C. Chickenpox
• D. Scarlet fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chickenpox (varicella). This viral disease typically starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen and then spreads to the face and proximal extremities. Chickenpox can result in serious complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a milder rash and is less pruritic than chickenpox. Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a rash that spreads from the head to the trunk. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria and is not a viral illness.

2. A child is being assessed for suspected appendicitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?

• A. Right lower quadrant pain
• B. Left lower quadrant pain
• C. Rebound tenderness
• D. Epigastric pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The appendix is typically located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is commonly associated with appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because left lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and epigastric pain are not typical manifestations of appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is not associated with appendicitis since the appendix is situated in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is more commonly linked with peritonitis rather than appendicitis. Epigastric pain is not a typical presentation of appendicitis as the pain is usually localized to the right lower quadrant.

3. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old boy who has sustained burn injuries. The nurse observes the burn developing a purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. The nurse suspects which infection?

• A. Burn wound cellulitis.
• B. Invasive burn cellulitis.
• C. Burn impetigo.
• D. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Invasive burn cellulitis. Invasive burn cellulitis presents with the burn developing a dark brown, black, or purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. Burn wound cellulitis (choice A) typically involves redness, warmth, and swelling around the burn site. Burn impetigo (choice C) is a superficial infection characterized by honey-colored crusting. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (choice D) is a condition caused by exotoxins from Staphylococcus aureus, leading to widespread skin peeling.

4. A nurse is assessing a 2-year-old child with suspected Down syndrome. What characteristic physical feature is the nurse likely to observe?

• A. Epicanthal folds
• B. Webbed neck
• C. Enlarged head
• D. Polydactyly

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epicanthal folds are a distinctive physical feature commonly observed in individuals with Down syndrome. These are horizontal skin folds that cover the inner corners of the eyes. Webbed neck (choice B) is not typically associated with Down syndrome but can be seen in conditions like Turner syndrome. Enlarged head (choice C) is not a characteristic feature of Down syndrome; however, individuals with hydrocephalus may present with this finding. Polydactyly (choice D) is the presence of extra fingers or toes, which is not a typical feature of Down syndrome.

5. You are called to a residence for a "sick" 5-year-old child. When you arrive and begin your assessment, you note that the child is unconscious with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. Management of this child should consist of

• A. 100% oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask and rapid transport
• B. positive pressure ventilations with a BVM device and rapid transport
• C. chest compressions, artificial ventilations, and rapid transport
• D. back blows and chest thrusts while attempting artificial ventilations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a pediatric patient with an unconscious state, a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, and a heart rate of 50 beats/min, the appropriate management involves chest compressions, artificial ventilations, and rapid transport. These signs indicate severe respiratory and circulatory compromise, requiring immediate intervention to support breathing and circulation. Choice A (100% oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask) is not sufficient in this critical situation as the child requires more than just oxygen supplementation. Choice B (positive pressure ventilations with a BVM device) may be needed, but chest compressions are crucial in this scenario due to the presence of bradycardia. Choice D (back blows and chest thrusts) are not indicated for an unconscious child with respiratory and circulatory compromise; instead, immediate chest compressions are necessary to provide circulatory support.

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