Nursing Elites

1. When explaining a viral disease that begins with malaise and a highly pruritic rash starting on the abdomen, spreading to the face and proximal extremities, and potentially leading to severe complications, which childhood disease is a nurse discussing with members of a grammar school’s Parent-Teachers Association?

• A. Rubella
• B. Rubeola
• C. Chickenpox
• D. Scarlet fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chickenpox (varicella). This viral disease typically starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen and then spreads to the face and proximal extremities. Chickenpox can result in serious complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a milder rash and is less pruritic than chickenpox. Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a rash that spreads from the head to the trunk. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria and is not a viral illness.

2. Based on developmental norms for a 5-year-old child, a healthcare professional decides to withhold a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) elixir and notify the healthcare provider. Below what apical pulse did the healthcare professional withhold the medication?

• A. 60 beats/min
• B. 70 beats/min
• C. 90 beats/min
• D. 100 beats/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 5-year-old child, an apical pulse below 90 beats/min is an indicator to withhold digoxin. Digoxin is a medication that affects the heart, and in pediatric patients, monitoring the pulse rate is crucial due to the risk of bradycardia (slow heart rate) as a potential side effect. In this case, an apical pulse of 90 beats/min or lower indicates a heart rate that may be too slow for a child of this age, warranting the withholding of digoxin and prompt notification of the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are not within the critical range specified for withholding digoxin in a 5-year-old child and would not necessitate withholding the medication.

3. During a primary survey of a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, what action should the nurse take first?

• A. Inspect the child's skin color.
• B. Assess for a patent airway.
• C. Observe for symmetric breathing.
• D. Palpate the child's pulse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When managing a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, the priority action during the primary survey is to assess for a patent airway. This step is crucial as burns in this region can lead to airway compromise, potentially causing rapid deterioration in the child's condition. Checking for a patent airway ensures that the child can breathe adequately, which is essential for oxygenation and ventilation. Inspecting the child's skin color (Choice A) is an important assessment but should follow ensuring a patent airway. Observing for symmetric breathing (Choice C) is relevant, but the immediate focus should be on securing the airway. Palpating the child's pulse (Choice D) is also a vital assessment, but in this scenario, the priority is to assess and maintain a clear airway to support respiratory function and oxygen delivery.

4. The parents of a 6-week-old infant who was born without an immune system ask a nurse why their baby is still so healthy. How should the nurse reply?

• A. Exposure to pathogens during this time can be limited.
• B. Some antibodies are produced by the infant’s colonic bacteria.
• C. Antibodies are passively received from the mother through the placenta and breast milk.
• D. Fewer antibodies are produced by the fetal thymus during the eighth and ninth months of gestation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Infants receive passive immunity through antibodies from the mother during pregnancy and breastfeeding, which protect them initially. Choice A is incorrect because a 6-week-old infant born without an immune system would not be able to limit exposure to pathogens effectively. Choice B is incorrect as antibodies produced by colonic bacteria are not a significant source of immunity in infants. Choice D is incorrect as the fetal thymus primarily plays a role in T cell development rather than antibody production during gestation.

5. Upon assessing a newborn immediately after delivery, you note that the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What is the most appropriate initial management for this newborn?

• A. begin positive pressure ventilations
• B. provide blow-by oxygen with oxygen tubing
• C. assess the newborn's skin condition and color
• D. start chest compressions and contact medical control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 100 beats/min in a newborn indicates the need for positive pressure ventilation to improve oxygenation. Providing positive pressure ventilations helps in assisting the newborn's breathing efforts to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choice B, providing blow-by oxygen, may not be sufficient to address the underlying issue of inadequate breathing. Choice C, assessing the newborn's skin condition and color, is important but not the most immediate action needed for a heart rate below 100 beats/min. Choice D, starting chest compressions, is not indicated as the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate, albeit lower than normal, which does not warrant chest compressions.

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