HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Test Bank
1. When planning the discharge of a child who had surgery for a congenital heart defect, what is an important aspect of the discharge teaching?
- A. Teaching the parents about signs of infection
- B. Providing instructions on wound care
- C. Scheduling follow-up appointments
- D. Explaining the use of prescribed medications
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Explaining the use of prescribed medications is crucial because it helps ensure proper management of the child’s condition after discharge. While teaching the parents about signs of infection and providing instructions on wound care are important aspects of postoperative care, they are not as critical as ensuring the correct understanding and administration of prescribed medications. Scheduling follow-up appointments is also important but does not directly impact the immediate post-discharge care and medication adherence.
2. A nurse is reviewing the immunization schedule of an 11-month-old infant. What immunizations does the nurse expect the infant to have previously received?
- A. Pertussis, tetanus, polio, and measles
- B. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio
- C. Rubella, polio, tuberculosis, and pertussis
- D. Measles, mumps, rubella, and tuberculosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: By 11 months of age, the recommended vaccines for infants include diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio. These vaccines are part of the routine immunization schedule to protect infants from serious infectious diseases. Choice A is incorrect because measles is not typically administered at this age. Choice C is incorrect because rubella and tuberculosis are not part of routine infant immunizations. Choice D is incorrect because measles, mumps, and rubella are usually given as a combination vaccine later in childhood, not at 11 months of age.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a child with tetralogy of Fallot that indicates an elevated RBC count. What does the professional identify as the cause of the polycythemia?
- A. Low tissue oxygen needs
- B. Tissue oxygen needs
- C. Diminished iron level
- D. Hypertrophic cardiac muscle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tissue oxygen needs. Polycythemia occurs as the body's response to chronic hypoxia by increasing RBC production to enhance oxygen delivery. In tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect, the heart's structure causes reduced oxygen levels in the blood. This chronic hypoxia stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, leading to an elevated RBC count. Choice A is incorrect as low blood pressure is not directly related to polycythemia in this context. Choice C, diminished iron level, is not the cause of polycythemia in tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D, hypertrophic cardiac muscle, is not the primary cause of the elevated RBC count in this case.
4. A parent tells the nurse, “My 9-month-old baby no longer has the same strong grasp that was present at birth and no longer acts startled by loud noises.” How should the nurse explain these changes in behavior?
- A. “I will check these responses before deciding how to proceed.”
- B. “Failure of these responses may be related to a developmental delay.”
- C. “Additional sensory stimulation is needed to aid in the return of these responses.”
- D. “These responses are replaced by voluntary activity at about five months of age.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “These responses are replaced by voluntary activity at about five months of age.” The grasp reflex and startle reflex (Moro reflex) are normal in newborns but typically disappear as the infant's nervous system matures and voluntary control develops. Choice A is incorrect because checking the responses before deciding a course of action does not address the developmental milestone related to the reflexes. Choice B is incorrect as it jumps to a conclusion of developmental delay without considering the normal developmental process. Choice C is incorrect as additional sensory stimulation is not necessary for the return of these reflexes, as they are expected to naturally diminish as part of normal development.
5. When developing the plan of care for a child with burns requiring fluid replacement therapy, what information would the nurse expect to include?
- A. Administration of colloid initially followed by a crystalloid
- B. Determination of fluid replacement based on the type of burn
- C. Administration of most of the volume during the first 8 hours
- D. Monitoring of hourly urine output to achieve less than 1 mL/kg/hr
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In fluid replacement therapy for burns, it is crucial to administer most of the volume during the first 8 hours to prevent shock and maintain perfusion. This rapid administration is essential to stabilize the child's condition. Choices A and B are incorrect because the initial fluid replacement in burns typically involves administering crystalloids, not colloids, and the fluid replacement is generally calculated based on the extent of the burn injury, not the type of burn. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring hourly urine output to achieve less than 1 mL/kg/hr is not recommended in burn patients; instead, urine output should be monitored to achieve 1-2 mL/kg/hr in children to ensure adequate renal perfusion.
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