HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client reports mild back pain after receiving analgesia 1 hour ago. Which non-pharmacological pain method should the nurse plan to use?
- A. Apply an ice pack to the client's back for 1 hour.
- B. Remove distractions from the client’s room.
- C. Instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths.
- D. Encourage the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths as a non-pharmacological pain management method. Deep breathing can help the client relax, reduce stress, and manage pain effectively. Applying heat or ice for prolonged periods can lead to tissue damage. Removing distractions can be helpful for promoting relaxation but may not directly address the pain itself.
2. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
- A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
- B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
- C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
- D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with a central venous catheter. What is the most important action for the nurse to take to prevent infection?
- A. Change the catheter dressing every 72 hours.
- B. Flush the catheter with heparin solution daily.
- C. Ensure the catheter is clamped when not in use.
- D. Maintain sterile technique when handling the catheter.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when handling a central venous catheter is crucial in preventing infections. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours, while important for overall catheter care, does not directly address infection prevention. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily is essential for maintaining patency but does not primarily prevent infections. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use is important for preventing air embolism but is not the most critical action to prevent infection. The most effective way to prevent infections is by strictly adhering to sterile techniques during catheter handling, which minimizes the risk of introducing pathogens into the catheter site.
4. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse identify as indicating the correct method for eliciting the client's patellar reflex?
- A. Tap just below the knee
- B. Tap on the upper thigh
- C. Tap on the ankle
- D. Tap on the lower leg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for eliciting the client's patellar reflex is to tap just below the knee. This action stimulates the stretch receptors in the patellar tendon, leading to a reflex contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the lower leg. Tapping on the upper thigh (Choice B) would not elicit the patellar reflex as it targets a different area. Similarly, tapping on the ankle (Choice C) or tapping on the lower leg (Choice D) would not produce the desired response associated with the patellar reflex, making them incorrect choices.
5. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?
- A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
- B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
- C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
- D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.
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