HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client reports mild back pain after receiving analgesia 1 hour ago. Which non-pharmacological pain method should the nurse plan to use?
- A. Apply an ice pack to the client's back for 1 hour.
- B. Remove distractions from the client’s room.
- C. Instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths.
- D. Encourage the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths as a non-pharmacological pain management method. Deep breathing can help the client relax, reduce stress, and manage pain effectively. Applying heat or ice for prolonged periods can lead to tissue damage. Removing distractions can be helpful for promoting relaxation but may not directly address the pain itself.
2. The patient has undergone surgery for a broken leg and has a cast in place. What should the nurse do to prevent skin impairment?
- A. Assess surfaces exposed to the edges of the cast for pressure areas.
- B. Keep the patient's blood pressure low to prevent overperfusion of tissue.
- C. Allow turning in bed to prevent complications.
- D. Encourage the patient's dietary intake to maintain hydration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To prevent skin impairment in a patient with a cast, the nurse should assess surfaces exposed to the edges of the cast for pressure areas. This is important to prevent pressure ulcers or skin breakdown. Keeping the patient's blood pressure low (Choice B) is not directly related to preventing skin impairment in this scenario. Allowing turning in bed (Choice C) is essential for preventing complications like pressure ulcers and is not contraindicated. Encouraging the patient's dietary intake (Choice D) to maintain hydration is not directly related to preventing skin impairment associated with a cast.
3. In planning care for a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome, nursing actions are based on the fact that the most likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to
- A. Stabilize alveolar surface tension
- B. Maintain alveolar surface tension
- C. Promote normal pulmonary blood flow
- D. Regulate intra-cardiac pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is often caused by a deficiency in surfactant, a substance that helps maintain alveolar surface tension. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, making it difficult for the infant to oxygenate effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stabilizing alveolar surface tension is not the issue, promoting normal pulmonary blood flow and regulating intra-cardiac pressure are not directly related to the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.
4. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?
- A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
- B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
- C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
- D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.
5. When explaining the fecal occult blood testing procedure to a client, which of the following information should be included?
- A. Eating more protein is not necessary before testing.
- B. Multiple stool specimens may be required for testing.
- C. A red color change indicates a positive test.
- D. The specimen must not be contaminated with urine.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When performing fecal occult blood testing, it is crucial to inform the client that the specimen must not be contaminated with urine to prevent false results. Choices A and B are incorrect because eating more protein is not required before testing, and multiple stool specimens may be necessary for accurate results, respectively. Additionally, regarding choice C, a red color change, not blue, indicates a positive test result, making it an incorrect option.
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