Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to insert a nasogastric tube for a client after explaining the procedure. The client states, 'You are not putting that hose down my throat.' Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. 'I can see that this is upsetting you.'
• B. 'It is necessary for your treatment.'
• C. 'It will be over quickly, and you will feel better.'
• D. 'Let me explain again why this procedure is important.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should acknowledge the client's feelings by stating, 'I can see that this is upsetting you.' This response validates the client's emotions and demonstrates empathy, which can help build trust and rapport. Choice B is too direct and might not address the client's emotional state. Choice C focuses on the outcome rather than the client's current distress. Choice D does not directly address the client's feelings of distress and may not effectively alleviate their anxiety.

2. A client is experiencing dehydration, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer antihypertensives as prescribed.
• B. Check the client’s weight daily.
• C. Notify the provider if the urine output is less than 30 mL/hr.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate independently four times a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's weight daily is essential for monitoring fluid status in dehydration. Administering antihypertensives, notifying the provider of insufficient urine output, and encouraging ambulation are not primary interventions for managing dehydration. Administering antihypertensives may affect blood pressure, but it is not a direct intervention for dehydration. Notifying the provider of a urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which is a sign of reduced kidney function rather than dehydration. Encouraging ambulation is a general nursing intervention and does not directly address the fluid imbalance associated with dehydration.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication commonly used in clients with chronic kidney disease to stimulate red blood cell production. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy. Hemoglobin levels reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and indicate if the medication is successfully treating anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Option A, serum creatinine, is a marker of kidney function, not the primary indicator of epoetin alfa effectiveness. Option C, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), is a measure of kidney function and hydration status. Option D, platelet count, assesses clotting ability and is unrelated to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia in chronic kidney disease.

4. A client who is 5'5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the LPN to include during the preoperative assessment?

• A. What is your daily calorie consumption?
• B. What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?
• C. Do you feel that you are overweight?
• D. Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the preoperative assessment, it is crucial for the LPN to inquire about the client's intake of vitamin and mineral supplements. This is important because certain supplements can have effects on coagulation, wound healing, and overall surgical outcomes. Asking about daily calorie consumption (Choice A) is not as pertinent as inquiring about vitamin and mineral supplements in this context. Questioning the client about feeling overweight (Choice C) may not directly impact the surgical outcome compared to the effects of supplements. Inquiring about the post-surgery diet (Choice D) is relevant but not as critical as understanding the client's supplement intake.

5. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

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