Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to insert a nasogastric tube for a client after explaining the procedure. The client states, 'You are not putting that hose down my throat.' Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. 'I can see that this is upsetting you.'
• B. 'It is necessary for your treatment.'
• C. 'It will be over quickly, and you will feel better.'
• D. 'Let me explain again why this procedure is important.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should acknowledge the client's feelings by stating, 'I can see that this is upsetting you.' This response validates the client's emotions and demonstrates empathy, which can help build trust and rapport. Choice B is too direct and might not address the client's emotional state. Choice C focuses on the outcome rather than the client's current distress. Choice D does not directly address the client's feelings of distress and may not effectively alleviate their anxiety.

2. After repositioning a client who reports shortness of breath, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Observe the rate, depth, and character of the client's respirations.
• B. Take the client’s blood pressure.
• C. Assess the client's pulse.
• D. Offer supplemental oxygen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing the rate, depth, and character of the client's respirations is crucial after repositioning a client experiencing shortness of breath. This action provides immediate information about the client's respiratory status. Checking blood pressure (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation, as assessing respirations is more urgent. Assessing the pulse (Choice C) is also important but does not provide direct information about the client's respiratory status. Offering supplemental oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary based on the assessment of respirations, but it should not be the first action taken without assessing the client's breathing pattern.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Mild nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased fatigue
• D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

4. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?

• A. At the time of admission
• B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
• C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
• D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.

5. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

Similar Questions