Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to perform nasal tracheal suctioning for a client. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the healthcare professional to take?

• A. Hold the suction catheter with the non-dominant hand.
• B. Apply suctioning for 20 to 30 seconds.
• C. Place the catheter in a clean and dry location for later use.
• D. Use surgical asepsis when performing the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Using surgical asepsis when performing nasal tracheal suctioning is crucial to prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because the suction catheter should be held with the dominant hand to ensure better control and precision during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect as suctioning should be applied for no longer than 10 to 15 seconds to avoid trauma to the mucous membranes. Choice C is incorrect as the catheter should be disposed of properly after single-use to prevent cross-contamination and infection.

2. After inserting an NG tube for a client, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect to confirm correct tube placement?

• A. An x-ray shows the end of the tube above the pylorus.
• B. The tube is aspirated and contains clear gastric fluid.
• C. The tube is flushed with sterile water without resistance.
• D. The client does not cough or choke during tube insertion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct placement of an NG tube is confirmed by aspirating gastric fluid, which indicates that the tube is in the stomach. An x-ray can help visualize tube placement, but it alone does not confirm correct placement. Flushing the tube with sterile water without resistance indicates patency but not necessarily correct placement. The absence of coughing or choking does not confirm tube placement and is more related to the client's comfort during the procedure.

3. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

• A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
• B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
• C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
• D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.

4. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?

• A. Early decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Accelerations
• D. Moderate variability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.

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