a nurse is planning care for a client who is wearing an arm cast and reports numb fingers which of the following actions should the nurse take first
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A client wearing an arm cast reports numb fingers. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's circulation. Numbness in the fingers may indicate compromised circulation or nerve damage. By assessing the circulation first, the nurse can ensure that the cast is not too tight, which could be cutting off blood flow. Option A is incorrect because placing the arm in a dependent position may worsen circulation issues. Option B is incorrect as administering pain medication does not address the underlying cause of numbness. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress could mask circulation issues and is not the priority in this situation.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This results in skin pallor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Anemia typically causes fatigue and decreased energy levels (not increased), low blood pressure (not elevated), and tachycardia (increased heart rate) to compensate for the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

3. Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Endometriosis. Endometriosis is associated with an increased risk of developing ovarian cancer due to chronic inflammation and hormonal imbalances. The exact cause is not fully understood, but women with endometriosis should be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Fibroids, early menopause, and polycystic ovary syndrome do not have a known direct correlation with ovarian cancer risk.

4. A nurse is planning to administer chlorothiazide 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally and administered twice daily for a toddler who weighs 28.6 lb. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct calculation is as follows: The toddler's weight in kg is 13 kg (28.6 lb / 2.2 lb/kg). The total daily dose is 260 mg (20 mg x 13 kg). Therefore, the dose per administration is 130 mg (260 mg / 2). Given the concentration of 250 mg/5 mL, the dose in mL is 2.6 mL (130 mg / (250 mg/5 mL)). Therefore, the nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose. Choice B, 2.2 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choices C and D, 3.5 mL and 5.0 mL, are also incorrect and do not align with the accurate dosage calculation based on the given scenario.

5. A nurse is performing a newborn assessment and notes a soft, swollen area on the newborn's scalp that does not cross the suture line. Which of the following should the nurse document?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the periosteum and the skull that does not cross the suture line. It is caused by trauma during birth and typically resolves on its own. Choice B, caput succedaneum, is characterized by diffuse edema over a newborn's scalp that crosses suture lines. Choice C, subdural hematoma, is a more serious condition involving bleeding between the dura mater and the brain. Choice D, molding, refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal. Therefore, the nurse should document cephalohematoma in this scenario as it aligns with the description of a soft, swollen area on the newborn's scalp that does not cross the suture line.

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