Nursing Elites

1. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

• A. A mole with an asymmetrical appearance.
• B. A mole with a regular border.
• C. A mole that is the same color throughout.
• D. A mole that is smaller than 6mm in diameter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.

2. When administering an otic medication to an older adult client, which action should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?

• A. Press gently on the tragus of the client's ear
• B. Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the client's ear canal
• C. Move the client's auricle down and back toward their head
• D. Tilt the client's head backward for 5 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to ensure that otic medication reaches the inner ear is to press gently on the tragus. The tragus is a small cartilaginous projection in front of the ear canal. Pressing on it helps to straighten the ear canal, allowing the medication to reach the inner ear. Packing cotton or moving the auricle can obstruct the ear canal and prevent proper medication delivery. Tilting the client's head backward is not necessary and may not facilitate the medication reaching the inner ear as effectively as pressing on the tragus.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.

4. A visitor comes to the nursing station and tells the nurse that a client and his relative had a fight, and that the client is now lying unconscious on the floor. What is the most important action the LPN/LVN needs to take?

• A. Ask the client if he is okay.
• B. Call security from the room.
• C. Find out if there is anyone else in the room.
• D. Ask security to make sure the room is safe.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most critical action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to ask security to ensure the room is safe. This step is crucial to prevent any further harm to the unconscious client or others. While it is important to assess the client's condition, ensuring safety takes precedence. Calling security from the room may expose the LPN/LVN to potential danger without confirming the safety of the environment first. Finding out if anyone else is in the room can wait until safety is established to avoid unnecessary risks.

5. A nurse is preparing to check a client's blood pressure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply the cuff above the client's antecubital fossa.
• B. Use a cuff with a width that is about 60% of the client's arm circumference.
• C. Have the client sit with their arm resting at the level of their heart.
• D. Release the pressure on the client's arm at a rate of 5 to 6 mm per second.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when checking a client's blood pressure is to apply the cuff above the client's antecubital fossa. Placing the cuff above this area allows for an accurate measurement of blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because the cuff width should be approximately 40% of the arm circumference, not 60%. Choice C is incorrect as the client's arm should rest at heart level, not above it, to ensure an accurate reading. Choice D is incorrect as the pressure on the client's arm should be released at a rate of 2 to 3 mm per second, not 5 to 6 mm per second.

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