a nurse is measuring bp of a client who has a fractured femur bp is 14094 mmhg and the client denies any history of htn which of the following actions
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet

1. A client with a fractured femur has a BP of 140/94 mmHg and denies any history of HTN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to ask the client if they are having pain. Pain can lead to temporary increases in blood pressure. Addressing pain as a potential cause is the initial step before considering medication adjustments. Requesting an antihypertensive medication or an antianxiety medication without assessing pain first would not address the immediate concern. Returning to recheck the BP can be done after addressing the potential pain issue.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer gentamicin 2 mg/kg via IV bolus to a client who weighs 220 lb. How many mg should the healthcare professional administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the dosage correctly, the weight in pounds must first be converted to kilograms. 220 lb / 2.2 = 100 kg. Then, multiply the weight in kg by the dosage of 2 mg/kg: 2 mg/kg × 100 kg = 200 mg. Therefore, the correct dosage to administer is 200 mg, which is closest to option A. Option C (160 mg) is incorrect because it does not match the calculated dosage. Options B (100 mg) and D (180 mg) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation.

3. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypocalcemia. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a risk factor for the development of this electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crohn’s disease is known to impair calcium absorption, which can lead to hypocalcemia. This condition affects the intestines and can disrupt the normal absorption of nutrients, including calcium. Postoperative status following appendectomy, history of bone cancer, and hyperthyroidism are typically not directly associated with a higher risk of developing hypocalcemia compared to Crohn’s disease.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.

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