HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with a fractured femur has a BP of 140/94 mmHg and denies any history of HTN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Request a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
- B. Ask the client if they are having pain.
- C. Request a prescription for an antianxiety medication.
- D. Return in 30 minutes to recheck the client’s BP.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to ask the client if they are having pain. Pain can lead to temporary increases in blood pressure. Addressing pain as a potential cause is the initial step before considering medication adjustments. Requesting an antihypertensive medication or an antianxiety medication without assessing pain first would not address the immediate concern. Returning to recheck the BP can be done after addressing the potential pain issue.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
3. A client is admitted with acute pyelonephritis. Which symptom should the nurse expect the client to report?
- A. Flank pain
- B. Pedal edema
- C. Hypotension
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flank pain is a classic symptom of acute pyelonephritis, which is a bacterial infection of the kidney. It occurs due to inflammation and irritation of the renal capsule, leading to pain in the flank region. Pedal edema (swelling in the feet and ankles) is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, not typically seen in acute pyelonephritis. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a systemic symptom that may occur with severe infections but is not a specific hallmark of pyelonephritis. Weight gain is also not a typical symptom of acute pyelonephritis; instead, patients may experience weight loss due to decreased appetite and systemic effects of infection.
4. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is being assessed. Which symptom would be most concerning?
- A. Headache
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Dizziness
- D. Chest pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chest pain in a client with hypertension is the most concerning symptom as it may indicate a myocardial infarction or other serious cardiac event related to hypertension. Immediate intervention is required to address potential life-threatening conditions. Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness are common symptoms associated with hypertension but are not typically indicative of an acute cardiac event requiring urgent attention.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- B. Administer oral hypoglycemic agents.
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access