a nurse is measuring bp of a client who has a fractured femur bp is 14094 mmhg and the client denies any history of htn which of the following actions
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet

1. A client with a fractured femur has a BP of 140/94 mmHg and denies any history of HTN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to ask the client if they are having pain. Pain can lead to temporary increases in blood pressure. Addressing pain as a potential cause is the initial step before considering medication adjustments. Requesting an antihypertensive medication or an antianxiety medication without assessing pain first would not address the immediate concern. Returning to recheck the BP can be done after addressing the potential pain issue.

2. When a client files a lawsuit against an LPN for malpractice, the client must prove that there is a link between the harm suffered and actions performed by the nurse that were negligent. This is known as:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Proximate cause.' Proximate cause establishes the link between the harm suffered and the negligent actions performed by the nurse. In a malpractice lawsuit, proving proximate cause is essential to demonstrate that the nurse's actions directly led to the harm experienced by the client. Choice A, 'Evidence,' is incorrect as evidence is the information presented to support or refute a claim, not specifically the link between harm and negligence. Choice B, 'Tort discovery,' is incorrect as it does not specifically refer to establishing the link between harm and negligence. Choice D, 'Common cause,' is incorrect as it does not capture the legal concept of proximate cause in establishing liability in malpractice cases.

3. A nurse manager is developing strategies to care for the increasing number of clients who have obesity. Which of the following actions should the nurse include as a primary health care strategy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits. This is a primary health care strategy as it focuses on prevention and early detection, which are key components of managing obesity. Screening during routine visits allows for timely identification of obesity and related health risks, enabling early intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not align with primary health care strategies for obesity. Ensuring availability of specialized beds, providing intraoperative training, and educating about postoperative complications are more focused on secondary and tertiary levels of care, rather than primary prevention and early detection.

4. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

Similar Questions

During the stages of dying, a client reaches the point of acceptance. What response should the LPN/LVN expect the client to exhibit?
A client with a terminal illness is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates that the client's death is imminent?
A client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A client needs to maintain a positive nitrogen balance for wound healing. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend as a good source of complete protein?
The client is advised to take dexamethasone (Decadron) with food or milk. What is the physiological basis for this advice?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses