a nurse is educating a client who has a terminal illness about declining resuscitation in a living will the client asks what would happen if i arrived
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A client with a terminal illness is being educated by a healthcare provider about declining resuscitation in a living will. The client asks, “What would happen if I arrived at the ED and I had difficulty breathing?”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client has a living will that declines resuscitation. Therefore, if the client arrives at the emergency department with difficulty breathing, healthcare providers would consult the living will to understand the client's wishes. Providing comfort care, which may include oxygen therapy to alleviate symptoms, aligns with the client's preferences. Option A incorrectly suggests an intervention that goes against the client's wishes. Option B is incorrect because full resuscitation efforts are not in line with the client's choice to decline resuscitation. Option D is also incorrect as it does not consider the client's living will and the need to provide care according to the documented preferences of the client.

2. Before starting an intensive exercise program, what instruction is most important for the nurse to provide to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting an intensive exercise program, it is crucial for the client to have a complete physical examination. This examination ensures that the client is physically fit to engage in such activities and helps in identifying any underlying health issues that could be exacerbated by the exercise regimen. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on stress levels related to eating habits rather than the importance of a physical examination for safety. Choice C is incorrect as exercise and stress management classes can complement each other rather than being mutually exclusive. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring weight loss, while important, is not as critical as ensuring the client's physical readiness for the exercise program.

3. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

4. A healthcare professional uses a head-to-toe approach to conduct a physical assessment of a client who will undergo surgery the following week. Which of the following critical thinking did the healthcare professional demonstrate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Discipline.' In this scenario, discipline is exemplified by following a structured and comprehensive assessment process, as seen in the head-to-toe approach. Confidence (choice A) relates to self-assurance and belief in one's abilities, which is not the primary critical thinking demonstrated in this situation. Perseverance (choice B) is the persistence in achieving goals despite challenges, not directly related to the systematic assessment process. Integrity (choice C) pertains to honesty and ethical behavior, which are important traits but not the critical thinking skill exemplified by the structured assessment process shown in the head-to-toe approach.

5. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

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