HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client reports having insomnia. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for the nurse to recommend?
- A. Exercise 1 hour before bedtime.
- B. Eat a light carbohydrate snack before bedtime.
- C. Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime.
- D. Take a 30-minute nap daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Eating a light carbohydrate snack before bedtime is a suitable intervention for insomnia because it can help stabilize blood sugar levels and promote sleep. Exercising close to bedtime may actually disrupt sleep patterns due to increased alertness and body temperature. Drinking hot cocoa before bedtime, which contains caffeine, may interfere with falling asleep. Taking a nap during the day can make it harder to fall asleep at night and may worsen insomnia. Therefore, the best recommendation among the choices provided is to eat a light carbohydrate snack before bedtime.
2. During an assessment, a client receiving tube feedings via NG tube shows signs of nasal mucosa irritation. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Irritation of nasal mucosa
- C. Sodium 144 mEq/L
- D. Loose stools
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritation of nasal mucosa is a crucial finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it suggests potential complications with NG tube placement, such as improper positioning or mucosal damage. High potassium levels (Choice A) can be concerning but are not directly related to NG tube placement issues. Normal sodium levels (Choice C) and loose stools (Choice D) are common occurrences in clients receiving tube feedings and are not typically indicative of immediate complications that require urgent reporting.
3. A client who had a stroke requires assistance with morning ADLs. Which of the following interprofessional team members should the nurse consult?
- A. Registered dietitian.
- B. Occupational therapist.
- C. Speech-language pathologist.
- D. Physical therapist.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in assisting clients with daily living activities, making them crucial for a stroke patient requiring help with morning activities of daily living (ADLs). While a registered dietitian (A) may provide nutritional guidance, a speech-language pathologist (C) focuses on communication and swallowing disorders, and a physical therapist (D) primarily deals with mobility and physical rehabilitation. However, none of these professionals directly address the specific needs related to ADLs following a stroke as effectively as an occupational therapist.
4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
- B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
- C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
- D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.
5. During a home safety assessment for a client receiving supplemental oxygen, which observation should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?
- A. The client uses non-acetone nail polish remover.
- B. The client uses an electric razor for shaving.
- C. The client cleans their oxygen equipment weekly.
- D. The client uses wool blankets.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using non-acetone nail polish remover is crucial for clients on supplemental oxygen as acetone is flammable and poses a safety risk. Acetone can react with oxygen, increasing the fire hazard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Electric razors can generate sparks, which are dangerous near oxygen due to the risk of ignition. While cleaning oxygen equipment is important, the type of nail polish remover used is more critical for immediate safety. Wool blankets can create static electricity, increasing the risk of fire around oxygen due to its flammability.
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