Nursing Elites

1. A client is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?

• A. Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime
• B. Exercise 1 hour before going to bed
• C. Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime
• D. Reflect on the day's activities before going to bed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend the client to use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime. Progressive relaxation techniques help reduce stress and muscle tension, which can promote better sleep. Choice A, drinking a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime, contains caffeine which can interfere with falling asleep. Choice B, exercising 1 hour before going to bed, can stimulate the body and mind, making it harder to fall asleep. Choice D, reflecting on the day's activities before going to bed, may lead to increased mental activity and prevent relaxation, making it difficult to fall asleep.

2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

3. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, the next action by the nurse should be to

• A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
• B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of manipulative behavior
• C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
• D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse experiences reluctance to interact with a manipulative client, it is essential to address these feelings constructively. Discussing the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor allows the nurse to gain perspective, reflect on the situation, and develop appropriate strategies for patient care. This action promotes self-awareness, professional growth, and ensures that patient care is not compromised. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues and can impact the therapeutic relationship. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client may escalate the situation and hinder effective communication. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario, as it focuses on behavior modification rather than addressing the nurse's feelings of reluctance.

4. A client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 2 days ago has many questions about this condition. What area is a priority for the nurse to discuss at this time?

• A. Daily needs and concerns
• B. The overview of cardiac rehabilitation
• C. Medication and diet guidelines
• D. Activity and rest guidelines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Addressing the client's daily needs and concerns is a priority to help alleviate anxiety and ensure the client understands the immediate post-MI care. Daily needs and concerns encompass basic aspects like comfort, hygiene, emotional support, and overall well-being, which are crucial in the early recovery phase post-MI. Discussing cardiac rehabilitation, medication and diet guidelines, or activity and rest guidelines are important topics but addressing immediate personal needs and concerns takes precedence to establish a supportive and informative care environment.

5. When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?

• A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
• B. 1+ pitting edema in both feet
• C. Pale nail beds in both hands
• D. Thick skin on the soles of the feet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.

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