a nurse is caring for a client who has stage iv lung cancer and is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection the client states i told myself th
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

1. A client with stage IV lung cancer is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection. The client states, “I told myself that I would go through with the surgery and quit smoking, if I could just live long enough to attend my child’s wedding.” Based on the Kubler-Ross model, which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is in the bargaining stage of grief according to the Kubler-Ross model. In this stage, individuals negotiate for more time to achieve specific goals or fulfill desires. The client's statement about quitting smoking to attend their child's wedding reflects this bargaining behavior. Anger (choice A) is characterized by frustration and resentment, denial (choice B) involves avoidance of reality, and acceptance (choice D) signifies coming to terms with the situation, none of which align with the client's current mindset of bargaining.

2. A caregiver of an immobile client requiring assistance with repositioning is being taught by a nurse on preventing back strain. Which statement by the caregiver indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tightening the abdominal muscles before moving helps protect the back by providing core support. Keeping the legs straight (choice C) is incorrect as bending the legs is recommended to provide a stable base and prevent strain on the back. Twisting at the waist (choice D) while moving can cause back injury due to the strain on the spine. Placing the bed in the lowest position (choice A) is not directly related to preventing back strain during client repositioning, although it may be necessary for other reasons.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a stool specimen to be sent to the laboratory to be tested for ova and parasites. Which of the following instructions regarding specimen collection should the healthcare professional provide to the assistive personnel?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To ensure accurate testing, a minimum amount of stool is required for specimen collection, typically at least 2 inches of formed stool. This amount provides an adequate sample for testing. Wearing sterile gloves is important for infection control but is not specifically required for stool specimen collection. Using a culturette is not typically necessary for collecting stool specimens. Recording the date and time the stool was collected is essential to ensure timely processing but does not directly impact the collection of the specimen itself.

4. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

Similar Questions

A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?
A client who is postoperative has paralytic ileus. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
During a peripheral vascular assessment, a healthcare professional places the bell of the stethoscope on a client's neck and hears an audible vascular sound associated with turbulent blood flow. This sound indicates which of the following?
Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses