a nurse is caring for a client who has stage iv lung cancer and is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection the client states i told myself th
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

1. A client with stage IV lung cancer is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection. The client states, “I told myself that I would go through with the surgery and quit smoking, if I could just live long enough to attend my child’s wedding.” Based on the Kubler-Ross model, which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is in the bargaining stage of grief according to the Kubler-Ross model. In this stage, individuals negotiate for more time to achieve specific goals or fulfill desires. The client's statement about quitting smoking to attend their child's wedding reflects this bargaining behavior. Anger (choice A) is characterized by frustration and resentment, denial (choice B) involves avoidance of reality, and acceptance (choice D) signifies coming to terms with the situation, none of which align with the client's current mindset of bargaining.

2. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure the client's safety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure the client's safety during a blood transfusion, it is crucial to verify the blood product with another nurse before administration. This step helps confirm the correct blood type and prevents transfusion reactions. While checking the client's identification and blood type (Choice A) is important, the ultimate responsibility lies with confirming the blood product before administration. Monitoring vital signs (Choice B) is necessary during a transfusion but does not directly address verifying the blood product. Administering blood through a peripheral IV line (Choice C) is a common practice but does not specifically ensure that the correct blood product is being administered, which is essential for the client's safety.

4. Which nutritional assessment data should be collected to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Upper arm circumference.' Upper arm circumference is a better indicator of total muscle mass in adolescents compared to height, weight, or triceps skinfold thickness. Triceps skinfold thickness primarily reflects subcutaneous fat, while weight and height are not specific to muscle mass. Upper arm circumference directly measures the muscle mass in the upper arm and can provide a more accurate assessment in this context. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly reflect total muscle mass in adolescents.

5. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedridden. Which observation...most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Purulent drainage around the insertion site of the feeding tube indicates an infection, which requires immediate attention. This may be a sign of a serious complication that needs prompt nursing intervention to prevent further complications or deterioration in the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's health. While option A highlights the infusion rate of the feeding, it does not pose an immediate risk compared to the presence of purulent drainage indicating infection.

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