Nursing Elites

1. A client with limited mobility in his lower extremities is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?

• A. Place the client in high-Fowler's position
• B. Increase the client's intake of carbohydrates
• C. Massage the reddened areas with unscented lotion
• D. Have the client use a trapeze bar when changing positions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to have the client use a trapeze bar when changing positions. This action helps in repositioning without causing friction or shearing, which can lead to skin breakdown. Placing the client in high-Fowler's position (Choice A) may not directly prevent skin breakdown related to limited mobility. Increasing carbohydrate intake (Choice B) is not relevant to preventing skin breakdown. Massaging reddened areas with lotion (Choice C) can potentially cause more harm by increasing friction and damaging the skin further, rather than preventing breakdown.

2. During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?

• A. Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate
• B. Palpate, Percuss, Inspect, Auscultate
• C. Auscultate, Inspect, Percuss, Palpate
• D. Percuss, Palpate, Inspect, Auscultate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in clients with chronic kidney disease. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, aiming to increase hemoglobin levels and improve symptoms of anemia in these patients. Monitoring serum potassium (Choice A) is important in clients with kidney disease, but it is more related to assessing electrolyte balance rather than the direct effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Serum creatinine (Choice C) and blood urea nitrogen (Choice D) are kidney function tests that help evaluate kidney health but do not specifically reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy.

4. During an assessment, a healthcare professional observes significant tenting of the skin over an older adult client's forearm. What factor should the healthcare professional primarily consider as a cause for this finding?

• A. Thin, parchment-like skin
• B. Loss of adipose tissue
• C. Dehydration
• D. Diminished skin elasticity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dehydration is the primary factor to consider in this scenario. Dehydration leads to decreased skin turgor and tenting, where the skin does not return to its normal position when pinched. While thin, parchment-like skin, loss of adipose tissue, and diminished skin elasticity can contribute to skin changes, they are not the primary cause of the significant tenting observed.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

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