Nursing Elites

1. A client with limited mobility in his lower extremities is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?

• A. Place the client in high-Fowler's position
• B. Increase the client's intake of carbohydrates
• C. Massage the reddened areas with unscented lotion
• D. Have the client use a trapeze bar when changing positions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to have the client use a trapeze bar when changing positions. This action helps in repositioning without causing friction or shearing, which can lead to skin breakdown. Placing the client in high-Fowler's position (Choice A) may not directly prevent skin breakdown related to limited mobility. Increasing carbohydrate intake (Choice B) is not relevant to preventing skin breakdown. Massaging reddened areas with lotion (Choice C) can potentially cause more harm by increasing friction and damaging the skin further, rather than preventing breakdown.

2. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 3-month-old infant immediately postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus. The healthcare provider needs to

• A. Assess for abdominal distention
• B. Maintain the infant in an upright position
• C. Begin feeding formula when the infant is alert
• D. Pump the shunt to assess for proper function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for abdominal distention is crucial in this situation as it can indicate a complication with the shunt or fluid accumulation. Abdominal distention may suggest an issue with the shunt placement, such as obstruction or overdrainage, which requires immediate intervention. Maintaining the infant in an upright position (Choice B) is not the priority immediately postoperatively following a ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. Beginning formula feedings when the infant is alert (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority over assessing for abdominal distention. Pumping the shunt to assess for proper function (Choice D) is not a recommended nursing intervention postoperatively and should be done by a qualified healthcare provider.

3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Positive bowel sounds
• B. Rebound tenderness
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Elevated temperature

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.

4. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

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