HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A client has been diagnosed with terminal cancer. Which of the following interventions is a priority?
- A. Teach the client to use progressive relaxation techniques.
- B. Help the client find a local support group.
- C. Discuss the client's prior coping mechanisms.
- D. Develop a list of goals with the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client receives a terminal cancer diagnosis, it is crucial to prioritize developing a list of goals with the client. This process helps the client focus on what is important to them, set achievable objectives, and maintain a sense of purpose and control. Teaching relaxation techniques (choice A) may be beneficial for symptom management but is not the priority when confronting a terminal illness. While finding a local support group (choice B) can be valuable for emotional support, it does not directly address setting goals. Discussing prior coping mechanisms (choice C) can provide insights into the client's coping strategies but may not be as essential as establishing future goals in the face of a terminal illness.
2. The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room after a leg injury. The x-rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The parents ask what will be the outcome of this injury. The appropriate response by the nurse should be which of these statements?
- A. The injury is expected to heal quickly because of thin periosteum.
- B. In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth.
- C. Bone growth is stimulated in the affected leg.
- D. This type of injury shows more rapid union than that of younger children.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A fracture near the epiphysis can result in retarded bone growth, so this should be communicated to the parents.
3. During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, how should the nurse perform each movement for a patient with impaired mobility?
- A. The nurse moves each movement just to the point of resistance.
- B. The patient repeats each movement 5 times.
- C. The movement continues until the patient reports pain.
- D. The nurse completes each movement quickly and smoothly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, the nurse is responsible for moving the patient's joints through their range of motion. The correct technique involves performing movements slowly and smoothly, only going to the point of resistance without causing pain. This technique helps maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. Choice A is the correct answer as it reflects the appropriate technique for passive ROM exercises. Choices B and C are incorrect because the patient is not actively participating, and ROM exercises should not cause pain. Choice D is incorrect as movements should be done deliberately and not quickly.
4. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
- B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
- C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
- D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.
5. During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider’s office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?
- A. Fat
- B. Fluid
- C. Flatus
- D. Hernias
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.
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