Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Place the client in a prone position
• B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
• C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
• D. Administer flumazenil

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

2. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Oxytocin
• B. Nifedipine
• C. Dinoprostone
• D. Misoprostol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice in this scenario. It is a calcium channel blocker that helps suppress uterine contractions and halt preterm labor. Nifedipine is commonly used to manage preterm labor in pregnant women by relaxing the smooth muscle of the uterus. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce or augment labor, not to inhibit contractions. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, not for stopping preterm labor.

3. A nurse is monitoring a client during an IV urography procedure. Which of the following client reports is the priority finding?

• A. Feeling flushed and warm
• B. Abdominal fullness
• C. Swollen lips
• D. Metallic taste in the mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Swollen lips indicate a potential allergic reaction or anaphylaxis to the contrast dye used during the procedure, which requires immediate medical intervention. Abdominal fullness and metallic taste are common side effects of IV urography and can be managed without urgent intervention. Feeling flushed and warm may also be a common reaction during the procedure and does not indicate a life-threatening situation like an allergic reaction.

4. A nurse is planning care for four clients. Which client is the highest priority?

• A. Client with dry, black eschar on the heel
• B. Client wearing an arm cast and reporting numb fingers
• C. Client with reddened skin around the coccyx
• D. Client with frequent incontinence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because numb fingers indicate neurovascular compromise, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The priority in this situation is to assess and address any circulation issues affecting the extremity. Choices A, C, and D are of concern but not as immediate as neurovascular compromise, which requires urgent attention to prevent further complications.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse identify as a catheter occlusion?

• A. Pain during urination
• B. Bladder distention
• C. Cloudy urine
• D. Blood in the catheter tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bladder distention. Bladder distention indicates that the bladder is full and there is impaired elimination, which could be caused by catheter occlusion. Pain during urination (choice A) is not typically associated with catheter occlusion but may indicate a urinary tract infection. Cloudy urine (choice C) can be a sign of infection but is not specific to catheter occlusion. Blood in the catheter tube (choice D) may indicate trauma during catheter insertion but is not a typical finding in catheter occlusion.

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