a nurse is caring for a client receiving iv moderate conscious sedation with midazolam the client has a respiratory rate of 9min and is not responding
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

2. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.

3. A client newly diagnosed with asthma is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Keeping a diary of albuterol use helps monitor the frequency and severity of asthma symptoms, which can guide the healthcare provider in adjusting treatment as needed. Option A is incorrect because fluticasone is a controller medication used for long-term management, not for treating acute asthma attacks. Option B is incorrect as using a peak flow meter once a week may not provide real-time information on asthma control. Option D is incorrect as limiting fluid intake does not directly prevent mucus production in asthma.

4. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice in this scenario. It is a calcium channel blocker that helps suppress uterine contractions and halt preterm labor. Nifedipine is commonly used to manage preterm labor in pregnant women by relaxing the smooth muscle of the uterus. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce or augment labor, not to inhibit contractions. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, not for stopping preterm labor.

5. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is being taught about the signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular contractions. Regular contractions before 37 weeks of gestation are a significant sign of preterm labor. It is essential for clients to be aware of this symptom and report it promptly to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sudden weight loss, shortness of breath, and vaginal spotting are not typical signs of preterm labor. Teaching clients about the specific signs of preterm labor can help in early detection and intervention, ultimately improving outcomes for both the client and the baby.

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