ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Position the client with the affected leg below the heart
- B. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- C. Apply cold compresses to the affected extremity
- D. Elevate the affected leg while in bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the affected leg while in bed. Elevating the leg helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, aiding in the management of DVT. Positioning the affected leg below the heart can worsen the condition by increasing the risk of clot dislodgment. Massaging the affected extremity can also dislodge the clot and should be avoided. Cold compresses are not recommended as they can cause vasoconstriction, potentially worsening the condition.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hrs. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?
- A. 0.7 mL
- B. 0.8 mL
- C. 1.0 mL
- D. 1.2 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Calculation: 8000 units / 10,000 units per mL = 0.8 mL. To correctly administer the prescribed dose of 8000 units, the healthcare professional should draw up 0.8 mL from the 10,000 units/mL vial. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculation based on the available concentration of heparin.
3. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?
- A. Skin turgor displays tenting
- B. Flat anterior fontanel
- C. Cool, mottled skin
- D. Hyperpnea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.
4. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client scheduled to receive chemotherapy for the first time
- B. A client post-appendectomy with diminished bowel sounds
- C. A client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous
- D. A client with burns requiring a sterile dressing change
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous should be assessed first as this may indicate a critical condition, possibly related to severe hypothyroidism. Stupor is a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility, suggesting a decline in neurological function that requires immediate evaluation. Choices A, B, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent assessment. While chemotherapy, post-appendectomy complications, and burn care are important, they do not pose the same level of immediate risk as a stuporous client.
5. A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Constipation
- C. Infusion reaction
- D. Immunosuppression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access