ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Position the client with the affected leg below the heart
- B. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- C. Apply cold compresses to the affected extremity
- D. Elevate the affected leg while in bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the affected leg while in bed. Elevating the leg helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, aiding in the management of DVT. Positioning the affected leg below the heart can worsen the condition by increasing the risk of clot dislodgment. Massaging the affected extremity can also dislodge the clot and should be avoided. Cold compresses are not recommended as they can cause vasoconstriction, potentially worsening the condition.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours post-surgery. The client has an indwelling urinary catheter, and the nurse notes a urinary output of 15 mL/hr. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Irrigate the catheter
- B. Assess the patency of the catheter
- C. Increase the IV fluid rate
- D. Notify the provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should first assess the patency of the catheter to ensure that the low output is not caused by a blockage. It is crucial to rule out any obstructions before considering other interventions. Irrigating the catheter without verifying patency may worsen the situation if there is a blockage. Increasing IV fluid rate may not address the underlying issue if the problem lies with the catheter. Notifying the provider should come after ensuring the catheter's patency.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, which can cause respiratory depression. Assessing the respiratory rate before administering naloxone is crucial to monitor the patient's breathing. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments in general patient care but are not specifically crucial before administering naloxone for opioid overdose.
4. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
5. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Avoid strawberries, citrus fruits, and melon to improve absorption
- B. Take with fluids other than coffee or tea
- C. Take on a full stomach
- D. Double the dose if you miss a dose one day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding strawberries, citrus fruits, and melon is not necessary for improving absorption of ferrous sulfate, taking it on a full stomach is not recommended, and doubling the dose if a dose is missed can lead to an overdose.
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