Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of depression. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Changes in sleep patterns
• C. Weight loss
• D. Both B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of depression, healthcare professionals should look for changes in sleep patterns and weight loss. These are common symptoms associated with depression. Increased energy (choice A) is not typically a sign of depression, as individuals with depression often experience fatigue and a lack of energy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect, making choice D the correct answer.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

• A. Increased urinary output
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

3. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. Distended, board-like abdomen
• B. WBC count of 15,000/mm³
• C. Rebound tenderness over McBurney’s point
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen is a concerning sign indicating the possibility of a ruptured appendix and peritonitis, which are medical emergencies. Reporting this finding immediately is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, an elevated WBC count, could indicate infection but is not as urgent as the risk of a ruptured appendix. Choice C, rebound tenderness over McBurney’s point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate an immediate threat like a possible rupture. Choice D, a slightly elevated temperature, is a nonspecific finding and not as critical as the risk of peritonitis associated with a distended, board-like abdomen.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who is lactose intolerant about dietary choices. Which food should the nurse recommend to increase calcium intake?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice for individuals with lactose intolerance who need to avoid dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium compared to spinach, and therefore, not the best recommendation for increasing calcium intake in lactose-intolerant individuals.

5. A client is prescribed omeprazole. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Magnesium levels
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Omeprazole can cause hypomagnesemia, a condition characterized by low magnesium levels in the blood. Monitoring magnesium levels is crucial to detect and address this potential adverse effect. Liver function (Choice A) is not typically affected by omeprazole. Blood glucose (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not directly impacted by omeprazole administration. Therefore, magnesium levels (Choice B) are the most appropriate parameter to monitor in a client prescribed omeprazole.

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