Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased serum amylase
• B. Decreased serum lipase
• C. Elevated blood glucose
• D. Elevated calcium levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, the nurse should expect elevated blood glucose levels. This is due to impaired insulin production by the inflamed pancreas. While serum amylase and lipase levels are typically elevated in acute pancreatitis, blood glucose levels are also affected due to the pancreatic dysfunction. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect. Elevated calcium levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis, making choice D incorrect.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in preterm labor and is receiving magnesium sulfate via IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium toxicity?

• A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL
• B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
• C. Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg
• D. BUN 20 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine output of 20 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity because decreased urine output can lead to accumulation of magnesium. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, high systolic blood pressure, and normal BUN levels do not specifically point towards magnesium toxicity.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer 1 unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to delay the transfusion?

• A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
• B. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
• C. Temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F)
• D. Hemoglobin 8 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) suggests the possibility of an underlying infection or fever, which should be evaluated before proceeding with the transfusion to prevent complications. Elevated temperature can indicate an immune response to incompatible blood components, increasing the risk of a transfusion reaction. The other vital signs and lab results provided are within acceptable ranges for administering packed RBCs, making choices A, B, and D less likely to cause a delay in the transfusion.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

5. A nurse on a rehab unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted patient who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which interprofessional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting?

• A. Physical therapist
• B. Speech-language pathologist
• C. Social worker
• D. Respiratory therapist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in assessing and treating swallowing disorders, making them the most appropriate consultant for a patient with difficulty swallowing following a stroke. While other interprofessional team members such as a physical therapist (choice A), social worker (choice C), and respiratory therapist (choice D) may play important roles in the patient's care, the primary focus for swallowing difficulties would be the speech-language pathologist.

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