ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse on the medical-surgical unit is receiving reports on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is receiving warfarin and has an INR of 3.3
- B. A client who has acute kidney injury, creatinine 4 mg/dL, and BUN 52 mg/dL
- C. A client who had an NG tube inserted 6 hours ago and has abdominal distention
- D. A client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat should be assessed first. This client may be experiencing airway obstruction due to hematoma or swelling, making it a priority. Options A, B, and C have concerning findings as well, but airway compromise takes precedence over other issues.
2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions about breast engorgement to a client who has decided not to breastfeed. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
- A. I can wear a supportive bra
- B. I will apply cold compresses to my breasts
- C. I will manually express breast milk
- D. I can take a mild analgesic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Manually expressing breast milk will stimulate more milk production, which contradicts the goal of reducing milk supply in clients who choose not to breastfeed. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that can help relieve breast engorgement without promoting further milk production.
3. A nurse is providing education to a client about a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Monitor for increased heart rate
- B. Take the medication at the same time every day
- C. It should be stopped abruptly
- D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take the medication at the same time every day.' Clients should take digoxin at the same time each day to maintain consistent therapeutic levels, enhancing the drug's effectiveness and minimizing fluctuations in blood concentration. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin, as a medication, may actually help in controlling the heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as digoxin should never be stopped abruptly due to the risk of rebound effects and worsening of the condition. Choice D is unrelated to digoxin therapy, as it is more relevant to medications like potassium-sparing diuretics.
4. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?
- A. A sandwich and milkshake
- B. Rice with black beans
- C. Cottage cheese and tuna lettuce
- D. Three-egg omelet with low-sodium ham
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.
5. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.
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